Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science with Solutions Set 5 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Set 5 with Solutions
Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
- This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
- All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to
attempt only one of these questions. - Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
- Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
- Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
- Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
- Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
Section – A
(Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 – 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.)
Question 1.
A gas cylinder has the following symbol on its surface. Which property of the gas is represented by the symbol? [1]
(A) Gas is compressible.
(C) Gas can diffuse.
(B) Gas is combustible.
(D) Gas does not have fixed volume.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: The symbol shows that the gas can be combustible and so it can be dangerous as it can catch fire.
Question 2.
At room temperature, water is liquid because at room temperature: [1]
(A) Water has no shape but has fixed volume.
(B) It takes the shape of the container in which it is kept.
(C) It can flow.
(D) All of these
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Water is liquid at room temperature as it can flow, has no definite shape but has definite volume.
Question 3.
What is sublimation? [1]
(A) The process of conversion of liquid to gas.
(B) The process of conversion of solid directly into vapours.
(C) The process of conversion of solid to liquid.
(D) The process of conversion of liquid to solid.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Sublimation is the process of conversion of solid directly into vapours.
Question 4.
In Thomson’s model of atom, which of the following statements are correct? [1]
(i) The mass of the atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom.
(ii) The positive charge is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom.
(iii) The electrons are uniformly distributed in the positively charged sphere.
(iv) The electrons attract each other to stabilise the atom
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Points (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. According to Thomson’s model of the atom, an atom consists of a sphere of positive charge with negatively charged electrons embedded in it. These negative and positive charges in an atom are equal in magnitude, due to which an atom is electrically neutral.
Question 5.
In a sample of ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5), the two oxygen atoms have the same number of electrons but different numbers of neutrons, which of the following is the correct reason for it? [1]
(A) One of the oxygen atoms have gained electrons.
(B) One of the oxygen atoms has gained two neutrons.
(C) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes.
(D) The two oxygen atoms are isobars.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: The two 0-atoms in CH3COOC2H5 can have different number of neutrons only if the two 0-atoms are isotopes. It is because isotopes of an element have the same number of protons (and electrons) but different number of neutrons.
Question 6.
Give an example of a gas-gas homogenous mixture. [1]
(A) Milk
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Watet
(D) Air.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Air is a homogeneous mixture of gases.
Question 7.
Sugar is a pure substance. it is because: [1]
(A) it cannot be separated.
(B) it can be separated.
(C) it contains carbon and hydrogen.
(D) it is crystalline.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Sugar is a pure substance because it cannot be separated.
Question 8.
Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum? [1]
(A) It behaves as a transport channel for proteins between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
(B) It transports materials between various regions in the cytoplasm.
(C) It can be the site of energy generation.
(D) It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: Mitochondria are the site of energy generation.
Question 9.
Plant cells have larger ……………………… than animal cells. [1]
(A) Vacuole
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Nucleus
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: In a plant cell, vacuoles play very important role as they store toxic metabolic by-products and provide turgidity and provide turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell.
Question 10.
Select the incorrect sentence. [1]
(A) Blood has a matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones.
(B) Two bones are connected with ligament.
(C) Tendons arc non-fibrous tissue and fragile.
(D) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: A tendon is a white fibrous tissue which has great strength but limited flexibility. Tendon joins muscles to bones.
Question 11.
Specialised connective tissue consisting of lipid-rich cells: [1]
(A) Adipose tissue
(B) Areolar tissue
(C) Muscular
(D) Nervous
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Adipose tissue is a specialised connective tissue consistmg of lipid-rich cells called adipocytes.
Question 12.
Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ? [1]
(A) Tendon
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Areolar
(D) Cartilage
Answer:
Option (C) is correct
Explanation: Areolar tissue helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ.
Question 13.
In which of the following cases of motion, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal? [1]
(A) lithe car is moving on a straight road
(B) lithe car is moving in a circular path
(C) The pendulum is moving to and from
(D) The Earth is revolving around the Sun
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: The distance moved and magnitude of displacement is equal only in the case of motion along a straight line. Because displacement is the shortest path between the initial and final position, so for car moving on a straight road, distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal.
Question 14.
The value of acceleration due to gravity: [1]
(A) is same on equator and poles
(B) is least on poles
(C) is least on equator
(D) increases from pole to equator
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: Earth is bulging out at the equator and at poles it is a bit flattened. So the acceleration due to gravity experienced at the poles is slightly higher than that at the equator.
Question 15.
Which of the following are exotic breeds? [1]
(i) Brawn
(ii) Jersey
(iii) Brown Swiss
(iv) Jersey Swiss
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Brown Swiss and Jersey are exotic breeds of cow.
Question 16.
Rearing of bees is known as: [1]
(A) Sericulture
(B) Apiculture
(C) Pisciculture
(D) Horticulture
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Apiculture is the rearing, care and management of honeybees for obtaining honey and other substances.
Assertion-Reason Based Questions
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Question 17.
Assertion (A): Water can exist in all the three states-solid, liquid and gases.
Reason (R): Water has high boiling point. [1]
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Water can exist in three states of matter, i.e, solid as ice, liquid as water and gas as water vapour. The states of matter are inter-convertible. The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is
known as the boiling point. Boiling point of water is 373 K (100°C).
Question 18.
Assertion (A): A single cell can live independently on its own.
Reason (R): Single cell can perform all the life processes. [1]
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: A single cell or unicellular organism like Amoeba and Paramecium can perform all the life processes and therefore can live independently on their own.
Question 19.
Assertion (A): Momentum of an object which is the product of mass and velocity is a vector quantity.
Reason (R): Momentum has both direction as well as magnitude. [1]
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Momentum of an object which is the product of mass and velocity is a vector quantity. Momentum has both direction as well as magnitude.
Question 20.
Assertion (A): Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field.
Reason (R): Weeds take up nutrients and reduce the growth of the crop, so their removal is necessary. [1]
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field. Hence, they should be removed.
Section – B
(Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions)
Question 21.
An element 2’ forms the following compound when it reach with hydrogen, chlorine, oxygen and phosphorus. ZH3, ZCl3,, Z2O3 and ZP.
(a) What is the valency of element Z?
(b) Element ‘Z’ is metal or non-metal? [2]
Answer:
(a) ThevalencyofZis3.
(b) Z is a metal because it is electropositive and reacts with non-metals.
Question 22.
List four functions of blood. [2]
Answer:
- It carries O2 and CO2 to various parts of the body and lungs.
- It transports food to various body parts.
- It transports hormones as well as metabolic wastes.
- It has a major role to play in the regulation of body temperature.
Question 23.
List any two functions of epithelial tissue in the human body. [2]
OR
Discuss the role of:
(a) Cellulose in cell wall ‘
(b) Presence of deeply folded membrane in mitochondria.
Answer:
Functions of epithelial tissue in the human body:
(a) Covering of the organs.
(b) Regulate the exchange of materials between the body and the external environment.
(c) Glands present in them help in various secretions. e.g., sweat, oil, etc.
OR
(a) Cellulose provides rigidity to the plant cell and helps it to withstand exosmosis in a dilute medium.
(b) Folds in mitochondria increase the surface area to help in ATP-generating reactions.
Question 24.
Following table shows various devices used in a house. Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 30 days for the house.
Device used | Power of the device | Time for which the device is used |
2 bulbs | 40 W | 6 hours |
2 tube lights | 50 W | 8 hours |
TV | 120 W | 6 hours |
Given the cost of electricity is? 2.50 per unit. [2]
Answer:
(a) 2 bulbs of 40 watts for 6 hrs.
E1 bulb= 2 × 40 × 6 = 480 W = 0.48 kWh
(b) E2 tube light= 50 × 8 × 2 = 0.800 kWh
(c) ETV = 120 × 6 = 0.720 kWh
Total Energy = 0.48 + 0.80 + 0.72 = 2.00 units
Rate = ₹ 2.50 per unit
Cost per day = 2 × 2.50 = ₹ 5.00
Cost of 30 days = 5.00 × 30 = ₹ 150
Question 25.
Ayesha has four solid boxes. The handles of the boxes are of different thickness and size. All the boxes along with their handles have the same mass, Which box will be heavy to lift? Which box has the most weight? Explain your answer. [2]
OR
Define work. Write an expression for work in terms of force and displacement. State SI unit of work done.
Answer:
Box 4 will be heavy to lift because of the thickness of handle. All four boxes have the same weight as their mass is the same.
OR
Work is done when a force acting on a body produces displacement in it. W = F × d. SI unit of work is Joule (J).
Question 26.
Chicken A is (all chickens in reference are of the same egg-laying variety) exposed to very bright sunlight, chicken B is kept inside a dark building whereas chicken C is kept in a well-lit building.
(a) Which chicken will have maximum laying output?
(b) Why will it have maximum laying output? [2]
Answer:
(a) Chicken C will have maximum laying output.
(b) It will have maximum laying output because it is exposed to moderate sunlight. Moderate light intensity and duration has a favourable effect on the egg-laying output of the hens.
Section – C
(Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions)
Question 27.
Explain what is observed when a strong beam of light is focused on a colloidal solution of starch in water. Name the phenomenon. [3]
Answer:
When a strong beam of light is passed through colloidal solution of starch, the path of light becomes visible, which scatters through the solution. This phenomenon is known as Tyndall effect.
Question 28.
Name the only liquid metal and the only liquid non-metal. Mention two gaseous non-metals. [3]
OR
What are canal rays? State the nature of the constituents of canal rays. Who discovered canal rays?
Answer:
Mercury is the only liquid metal and bromine is the only liquid non-metal. Two gaseous non-metals are hydrogen and nitrogen.
OR
The positively charged radiations produced in the discharge tube at low pressure and high voltage are called canal rays. The canal rays have positively charged sub-atomic, particles known as protons (p). E. Goldstein discovered canal rays.
Question 29.
Draw a diagram of cardiac muscle and label any two parts. Write one main function of cardiac muscle. [3]
Answer:
Question 30.
Which type of tissue do bone and cartilage belong to? Write the distinguishing features of each of the following:
(i) Bone
(ii) Cartilage [3]
Answer:
Bone and cartilage belong to connective tissue.
(a) Bone: It has a hard matrix. Bones are usually hollow.
(b) Cartilage: This tissue is elastic and harder but softer than bone. (ii) The matrix of cartilage is solid but elastic.
Question 31.
Two boys dropped sheets of paper from the top of the tower. One hoy dropped his sheet of paper as such, while the other boy dropped it by changing it in the shape of a ball Which sheet of paper will reach the ground first ? Explain why? [3]
Answer:
Any object freely falls (when air resistance is neglected) towards the Earth due to Earth’s= gravitational acceleration (g) that depends upon the mass (Me) and radius (Re) of the Earth as given below,
g = G(Me/Re22)
Hence, both the papers will reach at the surface of the Earth at the same time. If there was air resistance then the sheet which has been folded into a ball will reach the ground first because then that sheet will have very less area and hence less resistance to its fall.
Question 32.
(a) State the name of the object which has more inertia:
(i) a rubber ball and a stone of the same size.
(ii) an empty box and another similar box filled with clothes.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Luggage placed on the roof of a car or bus is tied with rope.
(ii) When a branch of a tree is shaken vigorously, some of the leaves drop down. [3]
Answer:
(a)
- Stone.
- Box filled with clothes.
(b)
- This is done to prevent luggage from falling when the vehicle is suddenly stopped or started because due to inertia the luggage will experience a jerk in a direction opposite to the direction of vehicle.
- On shaking, branch comes to state of motion and leaves which are in state of rest experience a jerk due to which these
get detached and fall down.
Question 33.
(a) Determine the minimum distance between the listener and reflector for an echo to be heard distinctively of a sound propagating with a speed of ν’ m/s. (ν = 340 ms-1)
(b) In a hotter day, will the speed of sound increase or decrease? Explain. [3]
Answer:
(a) The effect of a sound remains for nearly 0.1 s.
So, the minimum time gap between original and reflected sound should be 0.1 s. Distance travelled by sound in 0.1 seconds is 34.4 m. This is twice the minimum distance between a source and the reflector. So, the minimum distance should be at least 17.2 m.
(b) The speed of sound depends on the temperature and increases with temperature. So, on a hotter day it will increase.
Section – D
(Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions)
Question 34.
Hydrogen has three isotopes.
(a) State the composition of their nuclei and write their mass numbers.
(b) Also represent them in the form of symbols. [5]
OR
(a) Define melting point. Describe an activity with a labelled diagram to find melting point of ice.
(b) Explain why temperaftire remains the same during melting of ice.
Answer:
Isotopes of hydrogen are:
Protium 1H1 (1 proton, 0 neutron), Mass no.
Deuterium 1H2 (1 proton, 1 neutron), Mass no.
Tritium 1H3 (1 proton, 2 neutrons), Mass no.
Mass no of protium 1
Mass no of deuterium 2
Mass no of tritium 3
OR
(a) The melting point of a solid is defined as the temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure.
Activity:
- Take about 150 g of ice in a beaker and suspend a laboratory thermometer so that its bulb is in contact with the ice.
- Start heating the beaker on a low flame.
- Note the temperature when the ice starts melting.
- Note the temperature when all the ice has converted into water.
- Record your observations for this conversion of solid to liquid state.
- Now, put a glass rod in the beaker and heat while stirring till the water starts boiling.
- Keep a careful eye on the thermometer reading till most of the water has vaporised.
- Record your observations.
(b) The temperature remains constant during the melting of ice even though the heat is supplied regularly to increase the temperature for changing the state of matter. The heat of is consumed by the particles of ice and they vibrate faster breaking the forces of attraction and becomes liquid.
Question 35.
Two beakers A and B contain plain water and concentrated sugar solution respectively. Equal number of dry raisins are kept in them for a few hours and then taken out.
(a) What will happen to the raisins in beaker A?
(b) What will happen to the raisins in beaker A?
(e) What type of solution is solution A?
(d) What is Shrinkage of protoplasm known as?
(e) What is hypotonic solution? [5]
OR
With the location of the following tissues:
(a) Unstriated muscle fibres
(b) Cuhoidal epithelium
(c) Adipose tissue
(d) Striated muscle fibres
(e) Simple Squamous Epithelial cells
Answer:
(a) In beaker A, the raisins would swell because water concentration is higher outside the cell membrane, so more water enters the membrane than leaves it.
(b) In beaker B, raisins will shrink because water concentration is less outside the cell membrane, so more water comes out of the membrane than enters.
(c) It is a hypotonic solution.
(d) Shrinkage of protoplast from the cell wall in the presence of hypertonic solution due to exosmosis is known as plasmolysis.
(e) A solution which has less concentration of solute as compared to inside of the cell.
OR
(a) Alimentary canal, the iris of the eye, ureters, bronchi, etc. (anyone)
(b) Kidney tubules, ducts of salivary glands.
(c) Below the skin, between internal organs.
(d) Limbs, tongue etc.
(e) Oesophagus, lining of mouth
Question 36.
Study the given graph and answer the following questions.
(a) Which part of the graph shows accelerated motion?
(b) Which part of the graph shows retarded motion?
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the body in the first 4 seconds of the journey graphically.
(d) What is retarded motion? [5]
OR
(a) Briefly explain why some objects sink but others float when immersed in a liquid.
(b) When a boat is partially immersed in water, it displaces 600 kg of water. How much is the buoyant force acting on a boat in Newton (g = 10 m/s2)?
Answer:
(a) Acceleration = AB
(b) Retardation = CD
(i) s = Area of ΔAEB
[ = \(\frac{1}{2} \times 4 \times 4 \) = 8]
(ii) If the velocity of the body in motion decreases with respect to time, it is said to be retarded motion.
OR
(i) One factor responsible is density. If the density of an object is less than the liquid, the object floats and if it is greater than that of liquid it sinks. The other factor is upthrust or buoyant force. If it is greater than the gravitational force
on the object, then the object floats in the liquid and if it is less than the gravitational force on the object then the object sinks.
(ii) Since buoyant force (F) displaces the water, it can be determined as mass of water displaced (m) X acceleration due to gravity (g), or F = mg
= 600 × 10 = 6000 N
Section – E
(Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based! data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)
Question 37.
Observe the following table showing properties of 3 samples A, B, C. One of them is of solid, one is of liquid and one is of gas.
A | B | C | |
(i) Density | Highest | Intermediate | Lowest |
(ii) Diffusion | Negligible | Slower | Rapid |
(iii) Particle Motion/movement | No | Yes, but confined | Yes, free motion |
(a) Which of the samples is of solid?
(b) As sample C shows rapid diffusion, what type of sample it would be?
(c) Wlw does the density of sample A highest? [4]
OR
What type of sample is sample B? Give two examples of this type.
Answer:
(a) Sample A
(b) Gas
(c) As it is a solid sample, partides are closely packed, and forces of attraction are strong.
OR
(d) Sample B is liquid, e.g., water, milk etc.
Question 38.
Cells grow by dividing. The picture shows one such growing cell ready to divide.
(a) How many cells will be formed after the cell divides completely?
(b) How many chromosomes will each daughter cell receive?
(c) What is cell division? How it is useful?
OR
What is mitosis? How many daughter cells are formed from a mother cell in mitosis? [4]
Answer:
(a) Two daughter cells will be formed.
(b) 4
(c) The process by which new cells are made is called cell division. Due to cell division, new cells are formed in organisms in order to grow, to replace old, dead and injured cells, and to form gametes required for reproduction.
OR
The process of cell division by which most of the cells divide for growth is called mitosis. In this process, mother cell divides to form two identical daughter cells.
Question 39.
Rehana and Anju stay at different places but study in the same school.
The velocity-time graph shows how Rehana and Anju bicycled from house to school.
(a) What can be concluded from Rehana’s cycling graph regarding velocity and time of her cycling?
(b) What was Rehana’s maximum cycling velocity?
(c) What can be concluded by comparing the velocity-lime graphs of Rehana and Anju? Give reason.
OR
What does the slope of velocity time graph indicate? What does the area under velocity time indicate? [4]
Answer:
(a) Rehana was cycling with a uniform velocity between 0 to 5 minutes and 10 to 15 minutes.
(b) Rehana’s maximum coding velocity was 10 km/h.
(c) Anju cycled faster than Rehana at the start of the journey.
This is because Rehana cycled 0.5 km in 5 minutes, whereas Anju cycled 0.67 km in the same time.
OR
The slope of the velocity time graph indicates acceleration. Area under velocity time graph indicates displacement.