Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 3 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions :
- This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
- This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections A, B, C, D, and E.
- Section A – Question number1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.
- Section B – Question number 18 and 19 are Source-based questions carrying 3 marks each.
- Section C – Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
- Section D – Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
- Section E – Question number 29 and 30 are Map-based questions.
Section-A (17×1=17 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options. [1]
1. Assertion (A): Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of out-migrants.
2. Reason (R): Better opportunities and facilities attract migrants.
(a) Both the statements are true, statement 2 does not explain statement 1 correctly.
(b) Both the statements are true and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
(d) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is incorrect.
Answer:
(b) Both the statements are true and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1.
Question 2.
Match the following: [1]
| Column A | Column B |
| I. Low degree of urbanisation | 1. Andaman and Nicobar Island |
| II. Less population in comparison to plain area | 2. Mizoram |
| III. Union territory having the lowest density | 3. Remote and hilly areas |
(a) I-(2), II-(1), III-(3)
(b) I-(3), II-(1), III-(2)
(c) I-(i),II-(3),III-(2)
(d) I-(2), II-(3), III-(1)
Answer:
(d) I-(2), II-(3), III-(l)
Question 3.
The human development index measures ___________. [1]
(a) technological and industrial developments
(b) attainments in human development
(c) poverty and resource distribution
(d) shortfall in human development
Answer:
(b) attainments in human development
Question 4.
Which one of the following is the correctly pair of Railway Zone and its headquarters? [1]
(a) Central-Mumbai CST
(b) Eastem-Bhubaneswar
(c) East Central-Kolkata
(d) East Coast-Hajipur
Answer:
(a) Central-Mumbai CST
Question 5.
Which of the following is NOT a key area in human development? [1]
(a) Access to resources
(b) Long and healthy life
(c) Education
(d) Economic disadvantage
Answer:
(d) Economic disadvantage
Question 6.
What is the real wealth of a country? [1]
(a) Its climate
(b) Its people
(c) Its natural resources
(d) Its flora and fauna
Answer:
(b) Its people
Question 7.
Radio club of Bombay, Indian Broadcasting System and All India Radio are the examples of which of the following communication system? [1]
(a) Mass communication
(b) Personal communication
(c) Satellite communication
(d) Television communication
Answer:
(a) Mass communication
Question 8.
Which of the following columns is not matched correctly? [1]
| Short Form | Expanded Form |
| (a) DD | Doordarshan |
| (b) CNP | Common National Programmes |
| (c) INSAT-IA | National Television Forum |
| (d) AIR | All India Radio |
| Answer: (c) INSAT-IA |
National Television Forum |
Question 9.
Which of the following statement(s) given below is/are correct? [1]
I. Water scarcity is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary usage or wastage of water.
II. Water conservation is the practice of using water efficiently to reduce unnecessary usage or wastage of water.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Only II
Question 10.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of minerals? [1]
(a) There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals.
(b) Minerals are unevenly distributed over space.
(c) All minerals are exhaustible over time.
(d) All minerals are inorganic in origin.
Answer:
(d) All minerals are inorganic in origin.
Question 11.
In which state is Nhava Sheva port located? [1]
(a) Gujarat
(b) Goa
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra
Question 12.
Which of the following is not a conventional source of energy? [1]
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Nuclear energy minerals
Answer:
(c) Geothermal energy
Question 13.
Choose the correct statement: [1]
A. The developed regions of Europe, North America, Japan and Australia Provide large global Markets.
B. The density populated region of south and south-east Asia also provide large markets.
(a) Only Statement A is correct
(b) Only statement B is correct
(c) Both statement A and B are correct
(d) Neither A is Correct, nor B is correct
Answer:
(c) Both statement A and B are correct
Question 14.
Arrange the following religion Blocks in a sequential order according to their development. Choose the correct option. [1]
1. European Union
2. Association of South East Asian Nations
3. Latin American Integration Association
4. South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Options:
(a) 2, 1,3, 4
(b) 4, 1,3, 2
(c) 2, 3, 1,4
(d) 3, 2, 4,1
Answer:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation: The site and situation of a location of a particular region specify its growth. The location of urban centres is decided in relation to their function. For instance, the locational requirements of a vacation resort are different in comparison to that of an industrial city. The use of contemporary technologies has helped to locate urban Communities distant from the source of these minerals. The surroundings have a significant impact on the growth of cities. The urban centres that are near to a major commerce route have undergone fast growth.
Read the following case study and answer questions no 15. to 17.
Winters in the town of Trondheim mean fierce winds and heavy snow. The skies are dark for months. Kari drives to work in the dark at 8 am. She has special tyres for the winter and keeps the headlights of her powerful car switched on. Her office is artificially heated at a comfortable 23 degree Celsius. The campus of the university she works in is built under a huge glass dome. This dome keeps the snow out in winter and lets in the sunshine in the summer. The temperature is controlled carefully and there is adequate lighting. Even though fresh vegetables and plants don’t grow in such harsh weather, Kari keeps an orchid on her desk and enjoys eating tropical fruits like banana and kiwi. These are flown in from warmer areas regularly. With a click of the mouse, Kari can network with colleagues in New Delhi. She frequently takes a morning flight to London and returns in the evening in time to watch her favourite television serial. Though Kari is fifty-eight years old, she is fitter and looks younger than many thirty-year-olds in other parts of the world.
Question 15.
What type of climate has been described in Trondheim? [1]
(a) Moderate winter
(b) Continental climate
(c) Fierce winter
(d) Tropical climate
Answer:
(c) Fierce winter
Question 16.
What has made life possible in Trondheim. [1]
(a) The people are rich to afford such a lifestyle.
(b) The people like to live in Trondheim so are ready to bear all difficulties.
(c) The people are educated and hardworking.
(d) Technology has enabled the people to overcome natural constraints.
Answer:
(d) Technology has enabled the people to overcome natural constraints.
Question 17.
How Kari being fifty eight years old, looks younger than many thirty-year old? [1]
(a) With the help of technology
(b) By using the products of nature in a healthy way
(c) By physical fitness
(d) Strong will
Answer:
(b) By using the products of nature in a healthy way
Section-B (2×3=6 Marks)
Source-based questions
Question 18.
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : [3]
India’s urbanisation is attributable primarily to the deregulation of its economy in the 1990s, which facilitated the growth of the private sector. Despite the fact that India’s urbanisation is accelerating, just one-third of the country’s population lives in cities. According to the 2011 census, India has 53 cities with a population of one million or more, with that number expected to climb to 87 by 2031. Some of these metropolitan regions will grow into huge economic powerhouses, with GDPs exceeding nations like Israel, Portugal, and the United Arab Emirates. After 1941, India’s four major metropolitan cities, Kolkata, Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai, saw significant expansion. The country’s economy grew as a result of the industrial revolution, and the creation of new technology raised people’s living standards in metropolitan regions. The public sector’s expansion led to the construction of public transportation, roads, water supply, power, and other urban infrastructure. Some cities, such as Three Tier cities, are seeing population growth.
Maharashtra was India’s most urbanised mainstate till 1991, falling behind Tamil Nadu in 2001 and third in 2011, with Kerala coming in second in terms of urban-to-total state population ratio. Although cities have a huge number of people in a compact area, they offer enormous economies of scale that provide employment, housing, and services, and they offer tremendous prospects for sustainable development. It is critical to fully achieve Indian cities’ ecological, economic and social sustainability potential. However, inclusive planning offers inexpensive transportation, constant water supply, modem sewage treatment, and a competent, solid waste management system is the only way to harness and maintain rising urbanisation.
(a) How many cities are having more than one million of the population in India?
(b) How did the economic growth of India grow after post-1941?
(c) What is the impact of urbanisation in India?
Answer:
(a) 53
(b) After 1941, India’s four major metropolitan cities, Kolkata, Delhi, Mumbai, and Chennai, saw significant expansion. The country’s economy grew as a result of the industrial revolution, and the creation of new technology raised people’s living standards in metropolitan regions.
(c) The public sector’s expansion led to the construction of public transportation, roads, water supply, power and other urban infrastructure. Although cities have a huge number of people in a compact area, they offer enormous economies of scale that provide employment, housing and services, and they other offer tremendous prospects for sustainable development.
Question 19.
Study the picture given below answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Identify the crop in the picture given above.
(b) Name the leading producer of this crop in India.
(c) Name the states where the yield level of this crop is high.
Answer:
(a) Rice.
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, West Bengal and Kerala
Section-C (4×3=12 Marks)
Short Answer type questions
Question 20.
(A) Why is Geography often called the ‘mother of all Sciences’? [3]
OR
(B) Give examples of how both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from the human anatomy.
Answer:
(A) Geography is an inter-disciplinary subject which links and has an influence on other scientific fields that including—anthropology, biology, geology, chemistry, mathematics etc. Geography explores new ideas, place and culture often related to human knowledge. Therefore, Geography is often called the Mother of all Sciences.
OR
(B) There are various examples in the physical world, where human symbols and metaphors are used:
1. The ‘face’ of the earth
2. ‘Eye’ of the storm
3. ‘Mouth’ of the river
4. ‘Snout’ (nose) of the glacier
5. ‘Neck’ of the isthmus
6. ‘Profile’ of the soil.
Villages, towns, and regions have been described as organisms. German geographers describe a country as a ‘living organism’. Networks of road, railways and waterways have often been described as ‘arteries of circulation’.
Question 21.
What is satellite communication? How has it brought revolutionary changes in the field of communication in the world? [3]
Answer:
Communication through satellites which emerged as a new area in communication technology is called satellite communication. Artificial satellites are successfully deployed in the earth’s orbit to connect even the remotest comers of the globe with limited onsite verification. These have rendered the unit cost and time of communication invariant in terms of distance. This means, it costs the same to communicate over 500 km as it does over 5,000 km via satellite.
Question 22.
(A) Distinguish between rural marketing centres and urban marketing centres. [3]
OR
(B) Explain any three characteristics of periodical markets in rural areas.
Answer:
(A) Rural marketing centres: These centres cater to nearby settlements and are quasi-urban in nature. Here, both personal and professional services are underdeveloped. They serve as local collecting and distributing hubs. Most have mandis (markets) and retail centres. They supply goods demanded by rural residents. Periodic markets are typically held weekly or bi-weekly. Urban Marketing centres: These centres provide urban services, offering specialised goods and services, and selling manufactured items. Several specialised markets emerge, such as those for labour, housing, and semi-finished goods. They also offer services like education and professionals including teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists, and veterinary doctors.
OR
(B) The three characteristics of periodical markets in rural areas are as follows:
1. Periodical markets are generally found in rural areas where regular markets are absent. Local periodical markets are organised at varying intervals.
2. These can be weekly or bi-weekly markets where people from surrounding areas meet their demands.
3. These markets are held on specific days and rotate from one location to another. As a result, the shopkeepers remain engaged throughout the week, serving a broad area.
Question 23.
What are the three types of railway tracks in India? [3]
Answer:
The three types of railway tracks found in India are as follows:
1. Broad Gauge: The distance between the rails in broad gauge is 1.676 metres. The total length of these lines is 38914.91 km.
2. Metre Gauge: The distance between the rails in metre gauge is one metre. The total length of such gauge is 2402.25 km.
3. Narrow Gauge: The distance between the rails in narrow gauge is 0.61 or 0.76 metres. The total length of this type of railway tracks is 1604.12 km.
Section-D (5×5=25 Marks)
Long Answer Type Questions
Question 24.
What is ‘demographic cycle’? Describe three stages of Demographic Transition Theory? [5]
Answer:
The demographic cycle represents the changes in the population of a region as it moves from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as that region/society progress from rural, agrarian and illiterate to an urban, industrial and literate society. These changes occur in three stages that are collectively called Demographic Transition Theory. The three stages are:
1. The First Stage: This stage is marked by high fertility and high mortality. The death rate is also high due to epidemics and variable food supply. Therefore, the population growth is slow and life expectancy is low. People are mostly illiterate and engaged in agriculture, due to which large families are preferred. The level of technology is also low.
2. Second Stage: In this stage, the expansion of population remains high because the death rate reduces due to the improvement in sanitation and health conditions but the fertility rate remains high. Though, at the later stage, it declines with time. The mortality rate also decreases. The net addition to a population in this stage is high.
3. Third Stage: In the last stage, both fertility and mortality rate declines considerably and population either stabilises or grows slowly. The family size is deliberately controlled as the population becomes urbanised and literate. There is a high level of technical know-how in this stage. High technical knowledge contributes deliberately in controlling the family size.
Question 25.
(A) Discuss the major trends of modem industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the world. [5]
OR
(B) Explain why high-tech industries in many countries are being attracted to the peripheral areas of major metropolitan centres.
Answer:
(A) Some major trends of modem industrial activities especially in the developed countries are:
1. Division of work: Workflow in a modem industry is divided into smaller tasks. These tasks are then assigned to individual workers, who work on it repeatedly. This way, the worker obtains specialisation in that particular work. Division of work is also effective in producing more goods/
products with less effort.
2. Mechanisation: It refers to using modem gadgets to finish a task. High-tech computers, robotics, automation and controlled systems are being used without human aid to accomplish a task. Mechanisation helps in boosting productivity and efficiency of the production work.
3. Technological innovation: Today, industries in developed countries are largely investing in research and development and finding new ways to improve quality, eliminate wastage and inefficiency, and combating pollution. Technological innovation helps an organisation become operationally effective, responsive and improve outcomes.
OR
(B) Following are the reasons to attract the high-tech industries or technological parks to the peripheral areas of major metropolitan cities:
1. Specially light Industry which depends upon component finds it perfect to sell their output in nearby metropolitan areas.
2. Greater prospectives for future development because extensive land is available in peripheral areas.
3. Cost of land is generally less in peripheral areas.
4. Transport facilities are accessible through link and ring roads to the peripheral areas.
5. A pollution free environment is an additional benefit in peripheral areas.
6. Cheap and abundant labour supply from neighbouring residential areas.
Question 26.
(A) Name the canal which has significantly shortened the distance between Europe and Asia. Write the importance of this canal. [5]
OR
(B) Elaborate the development of communication that led to the development of human beings.
Answer:
(A) The Suez Canal has shortened the distance between Europe and Asia. This canal was constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south, linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Its important features are:
1. It provides Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
2. It is a sea-level canal without locks which is about 160 km long and 11 to 15 m deep.
3. About 100 ships travel daily and each ship takes 10-12 hours to cross this canal.
4. A railway follows the canal to Suez, and from Ismailia there is a branch line to Cairo.
5. A navigable fresh-water canal from the Nile also joins the Suez Canal in Ismailia to supply fresh water to Port Said and Suez.
OR
(B) Human beings have used different methods long-distance communications of which the telegraph and the telephone were important.
1. The telegraph was instrumental in the colonisation of the American West. During the early and mid-twentieth century, the American Telegraph and Telephone Company (AT&T) enjoyed a monopoly over the U.S.A.’s telephone industry.
2. In fact, the telephone became a essential factor in the urbanisation of western countries. Today there is a phenomenal pace of development. The first major breakthrough is the use of Optic Fiber Cables (OFC). These allow large quantities of data to be transmitted rapidly, securely, and are virtually error-free. With the digitisation of information in the 1990s, telecommunication slowly merged with computers to form integrated networks termed as Internet. Cyberspace will expand the contemporary economic and social space of humans through e-mail, e-commerce, e-leaming and e-governance. It is these modern communication systems, more than transportation, that have made the concept of a global village a reality.
Question 27.
(A) How Does the Drought-Prone Area Programme help in the development of dry-land agriculture in India? [5]
OR
(B) Describe the measures for the promotion of sustainable development in the command area.
Answer:
(A) The Drought-Prone Area Programme helps in the development of dry-land agriculture in India in the following ways:
1. This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially, this programme emphasised the construction of labour-intensive civil works.
2. Over time, the focus transitioned to irrigation projects, land development initiatives, afforestation, grassland development, and establishing fundamental rural infrastructure, including electricity, roads, markets, credit, and other essential services.
3. Predominantly, the programme is geared towards the enhancement of agriculture and its related sectors, with a significant thrust on restoring ecological balance.
4. Given the escalating population pressure that drives the use of marginal lands for agriculture, leading to environmental degradation, there’s a pressing need to introduce alternative employment avenues in drought-affected regions.
5. The programme also advocates the integrated watershed development approach at a micro-level to further aid these regions.
6. Central to the strategy for developing drought-prone areas is the restoration of the ecological balance among water, soil, plants, and human and animal populations.
OR
(B) The following are measures to promote sustainable development in the command area:
1. The foremost requirement is the rigorous implementation of the water management policy. Initially, the canal project should provide protective irrigation, progressing to extensive crop irrigation and pasture development in subsequent stages.
2. The prescribed cropping pattern should avoid water-intensive crops. Adherence to this guideline is essential, and farmers should be persuaded to cultivate plantation crops, such as citrus fruits.
3. Effective implementation of Command Area Development (CAD) programmes, such as water course lining, land development and levelling, along with the ‘warabandi’ system (ensuring equitable distribution of canal water across the outlet’s command area), is vital to minimize water conveyance losses.
4. Areas suffering from waterlogging and soil salinity must undergo reclamation.
5. Eco-development, encompassing afforestation, shelterbelt plantation, and pasture development, is crucial, especially in the environmentally delicate segments of the project.
6. To achieve social sustainability, land allottees from economically weaker backgrounds should receive substantial financial and institutional support for land cultivation.
7. Economic sustainability isn’t achievable solely through agriculture and animal husbandry. These activities should develop in tandem with other economic sectors. This integrated approach fosters economic diversification and establishes functional linkages, between foundational villages, agro-service hubs, and market centres.
Question 28.
“Increasing population is the sole reason behind the rising environmental degradation on a global level.” [5]
Justify the statement by citing one example for each one of the four types of pollution.
Answer:
High growth rate of population at a global level has been the most important cause of increasing pressure on the environment and its resources, environmental degradation and pollution. Each type of pollution marks increasing population as the major cause of its existence and increase.
1. Water Pollution: Increasing population implies increased usage of ground and surface water source. Likewise, increase usage in agricultural and industrial production implies increasing use of chemicals, thereby increasing the toxic waste run-off.
2. Air Pollution: Increasing population pertains to increased use of automobile and increased production and toxic gaseous emissions from industries causing serious rise in air pollution and its consequent health hazards.
3. Land Pollution: Increasing population results in high demand of infrastructure through landfill, increased pressure on soil due to high demand for food, thus reducing its fertility, increased waste generation and reduced green cover, thus increasing air pollution.
4. Noise Pollution: Increasing population also signifies increased congestion, traffic, nuisance and noises from automobiles which increase noise pollution.
Section-E (2×5=10 Marks)
Map-based questions
Question 29.
On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature. [5]
A. An important industrial region of USA.
B. An important industrial region of Russia.
C. An Inland port of USA of river Mississippi.
D. A commercial port in Panama.
E. Country of USA in which subsistence agriculture is practise.
F. Identify the country where intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in Asia.
G. Eastern Point of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.
Answer:
A. Chicago
B. Moscow
C. New Orleans
D. Colon
E. Mexico
F. North Korea
G. Sydney
Question 30.
On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols: [5]
A. Headquarters of Southern Railway Zone in India.
B. Largest port in India.
C. India’s first satellite launching station.
D. Manganese mines of Karnataka.
E. Identify the state which have vast surface water resources in the lagoons and lakes.
F. The reason in southern Indian where tea is cultivated.
G. Bauxite mines of Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
A. Chennai
B. Mumbai port
C. The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) (Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre)
Thiruvananthapuram.
D. Shimoga
E. Kerala
F. Nilgiris
G. Bilaspur