Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science with Solutions Set 2 are designed as per the revised syllabus.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Set 2 with Solutions
Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
- This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
- All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
- Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
- Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
- Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should lie in the range of 50 to 80 words.
- Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
- Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
Section – A
(Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 – 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.)
Question 1.
Masood wanted to find out which state of a substance dissolves faster in water.
Masood added the following substances to the jars of water.
10g of copper sulphate crystal to jar 1.
10 ml of 75% copper sulphate solution to Jar 2.
The table below shows the colour of the water in each jar after specific time periods.
Which statement can be concluded from Masood’s activity? [1]
(A) Crystals dissolve partially in water.
(B) Liquids dissolve faster than solids in water.
(C) Copper sulphate dissolves faster in water than in any other liquid.
(D) Particles of a liquid have a stronger force of attraction than that of a solid.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: From the diagram it can be observed that liquids dissolve faster than solids in water.
Question 2.
Which of the following statements is not true about an atom? [1]
(A) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(B) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed.
(C) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(D) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel or touch.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: The molecules and ions, not atoms, aggregate together in large numbers to form matter. We cannot see the individual molecules/ions with our eyes, but we can see the various substances which are a big collection of molecules/ions.
Question 3.
The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is: [1]
(A) Ni
(B) N2
(C) N+
(D) N
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Nitrogen molecule is diatomic molecule; therefore, it exists as N2, molecules.
Question 4.
The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion? [1]
(A) 13
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Given, Charge = + 3, mass number = 27 and number of neutrons = 14. Number of protons = Atomic number.
Atomic number = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 27- 14 = 13 This is the atomic number of aluminum. Therefore, this element is aluminum (Al). Number of electrons in the Al atom = 13 Number of electrons in the Al3+ ion = 13 – 3 =10 as it is formed from the neutral atom by loss of 3 electrons.
Question 5.
Elements with valency 1 are:
(A) Always metals.
(B) Always metalloids.
(C) Either metals or non-metals.
(D) Always non-metals.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: Metals and non-metals both can have valency 1. Metals which have 1 valence electron and non-metals which have 7 valence electrons have valency 1. It is because; metals lose their 1e– and non-metals gain 1e– to complete their octet.
Question 6.
Out of the following, the homogeneous mixture is/are: [1]
(A) Only air
(B) Air and filtered tea
(C) Air and wood
(D) Soil, calcium oxide and ink
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: There is only one phase of matter observed in a homogeneous mixture. Air and filtered tea are homogenous mixtures while wood and soil are heterogenous mixtures.
Question 7.
In a compound water at what ratio by mass hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water: [1]
(A) 1: 2
(B) 1: 8
(C) 2: 1
(D) 8: 1
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: The molecular formula of water is H2O and its molecular mass is 18 g. So, when 2g of hydrogen combines with 16 g of oxygen then 18 g of water is formed. So, the ratio is:
H: O
2: 16
1: 8
Question 8.
Silver nitrate solution is used to study: [1]
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Nucleus
(D) Mitochondria
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Camilla Golgi, discovered the method of staining individual cell structures. He used a weak solution of silver nitrate to study the Golgi apparatus.
Question 9.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole? [1]
(A) Storage
(B) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(C) Vaste excretion
(D) Locomotion
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Vacuoles do not provide locomotion.
Question 10.
A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the sideways conduction of water in the branches is: [1]
(A) Collenchyma
(B) Xylem parenchyma
(C) Parenchvma
(D) Xylem vessels
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Xylem parenchyma helps in the sideways conduction of water in the branches. They are very long tube-like structures formed by a row of cells placed end to end.
Question 11.
Cartilage is not found in: [1]
(A) Nose
(B) Ear
(C) Kidney
(D) Larynx
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: Cartilage occurs at the joints of bones, in the nose, ear, trachea, and larynx. It helps in smoothing the surface at the joints. It lends support and provides flexibility to the body parts.
Question 12.
Plasmol sis in a plant cell is defined as: [1]
(A) Break down (lysis) of the plasma membrane in a hypotonic medium.
(B) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in a hypertonic medium.
(C) Shrinkage of nucleoplasm.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium. When a cell is immersed in hypertonic (very concentrated) solution, water diffuses out of the cell by the process of exosmosis. As
a result, the cell shrinks. If exosmosis continues in a plant cell, the cytoplasm appears to be shrunken. This is called plasmolysis and the cell is said to be plasmolysed.
Question 13.
An object is said to be moving with ……………….. it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time. [1]
(A) non-uniform speed
(B) uniform speed
(C) average speed
(D) uniform displacement
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: An object with uniform speed covers equal distance in equal interval of time.
Question 14.
According to the third law of motion, action, and reaction: [1]
(A) Always act on the same body.
(B) Always act on different bodies in opposite directions.
(C) Have the same magnitude and direction.
(D) Act on either body at normal to each other.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: According to third law of motion, action, and reaction always act on different bodies in opposite directions.
Question 15.
Which one is not a source of carbohydrates? [1]
(A) Rice
(B) Millets
(C) Sorghum
(D) Gram
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Cereals like wheat, rice, maize, barley, sorghum, etc, are rich sources of carbohydrates. Gram is a source of proteins.
Question 16.
Which is a Kharif Crop? [1]
(A) Pigeon Pea
(B) Gram
(C) Mustard
(D) Wheat
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: Kharif Crops are grown in the rainy season from the month of June to October, e.g., paddy, pigeon pea, maize, cotton, etc.
Assertion-Reason Based Questions
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Question 17.
Assertion (A): Alloys are homogenous mixtures of metals.
Reason (R): Alloys cannot be separated into their components by physical methods.[1]
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: An alloy is homogenous mixture. There is only one phase of matter observed in a homogeneous mixture.
Question 18.
Assertion (A): Bone and cartilage are rigid connective tissue.
Reason (R): Blood is a connective tissue in which plasma is the matrix.[1]
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Bone and cartilage is a hard connective tissue. Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
Question 19.
Assertion (A): Ceilings of concert halls and conference halls are made flat.
Reason (R): Curved ceilings reflect the sound and spread it evenly across the width of the hall. [1]
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation: Ceilings of concert halls and conference halls are made curved. Generally, the curved ceilings reflect the sound and spread it evenly across the width of the hail.
Question 20.
Assertion (A): Manures improve soil conditions.
Reason (R): In manures, elements are not present in adequate proportions. [1]
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: Manures contain decomposed animal and plant wastes and increase soil nutrition and fertility. They supply all the elements of fertility which crops require though not in adequate proportions.
Section – B
(Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions)
Question 21.
Which atom, Na+ or He, has completely filled K and L shells? Give a reason to support your answer. [2]
Answer:
Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Na atom gets converted into Na by losing one electron from its outermost shell. The atom has only K shell.
Question 22.
List any two characteristic features of parenchyma tissue. [2]
Answer:
Characteristic features of parenchyma tissue:
- Have isodiametric cells.
- The cells are arranged in such a way that they possess intercellular space.
- They have thin cell walls.
Question 23.
Write the location and function of collenchyma tissue. [2]
OR
Name a cell organelle which lacks a membrane. Where is it prepared?
Answer:
Collenchyma is located in leaf stalks below the epidermis. It provides flexibility in plants and easy bending and mechanical support.
OR
A ribosome is a cell organelle that lacks membrane. It is prepared in the nucleolus.
Question 24.
Four persons separately pulled a 100 kg cart for a distance of 500 m.
The table shows the time each person took to cover the distance with the cart.
| Person 1 | Person 2 | Person 3 | Person 4 | |
| Time taken to cover the distance | 12 mins | 15 mins | 10 mins | 18 mins |
Which of the following must be kept the same in the activity to make a valid conclusion: Mass of each person, the height of each person, the surface on which the cart was pulled? [2]
Answer:
The surface on which the cart was pulled should be kept the same to make a valid conclusion.
Question 25.
In the diagram given below, if the card is flicked away with a jerk, what will you observe? Explain the reason for this observation. [2]
OR
Name the positions on Earth where the value of ‘g’ is (i) maximum (ii) minimum? Justify your answer.
Answer:
We will observe that the card moves ahead allowing the coin to fall vertically into the glass. This is due to inertia. The inertia of the countries to maintain its state of rest.
OR
On Earth, value of g is maximum at poles and minimum at the equator. At poles radius of Earth is less so value of g is more, at equator radius of Earth is more so value of g is less
g ∝ 1/(R2).
Question 26.
Observe the image and answer the questions.
(a) Identify the crop shown in the image.
(b) Which type of crop it is? [2]
Answer:
(a) Peas,
(b) Rabi crop.
Section – C
(Question No. 27 f033 are short answer questions)
Question 27.
(a) How can we say that sugar is a pure substance, whereas milk is not?
(b) Which of the following materials fall in the category of a pure substance?
(i) Ice
(ii) Iron
(iii) Wood
(iv) Brick [3]
Answer:
(a) Sugar is a pure substance because it cannot be separated and is formed of only a single type of molecule. In the case of milk, it can be separated by physical process into its components. It has components like water, fat and proteins, etc.
(b) Ice and iron are pure substances as they contain particles of only one kind of matter while wood and brick contain more than one kind of matter.
Question 28.
Why are solids incompressible? [3]
OR
How many electrons, protons, and neutrons will be there in an element X’? What will be the valency of the element?
Answer:
Solids are incompressible because the particles are closely packed and there is no space for their movement.
OR
No. of protons = Number of electrons = Atomic number = 9
No. of protons + neutrons = Mass number = 19
Number of protons = 9
Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number = 19 – 9 = 10
Electronic configuration of X = 2,7
Valency of X = 1 (since it requires one electron to complete its octet)
Question 29.
Name the living component common to both the complex permanent tissues found in plants. What is its function? [3]
Answer:
The xylem and phloem are the complex permanent tissues found in plants. living component common to xylem and phloem tissues is parenchyma.
Its function is to store food and help in the sideways conduction of water in the xylem and food in the phloem.
Question 30.
Mention four characteristic features of the cells of meristematic tissue. [3]
Answer:
Cells of this tissue are:
- very active.
- have dense cytoplasm.
- have thin cellulose walls and prominent nuclei.
- lack vacuoles.
Question 31.
Define SI unit of force. A force of 2N acting on a body changes its velocity uniformly from 2 m/s to 5 m/s in 10m/s. Calculate the mass of the body. [3]
Answer:
SI unit of force is Newton (N). One Newton is the force that produces an acceleration of 1ms-2 on a body of mass 1 kg.
Here,F=2N, u =2m/s, v=5m/s, t = 10s, m =?
a = \(\frac{v-u}{t} \)
= \(\frac{5-2}{10} \) = 0.3 m/s2
m = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{a}=\frac{2}{3} \times 10=\frac{20}{3}\) = 6.67 kg (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2016)
Question 32.
Account for the following:
(a) On the Moon, man feels lighter than Earth.
(b) Mass is scalar, while weight is a vector quantity.[3]
Answer:
(a) Due to less gravitational force exerted by the Moon on man.
(b) Mass do not have direction while weight has direction.
Question 33.
State the reason for the following statements:
(a) Ceilings of good conference halls and concert halls are curved.
(b) We hear the sound produced by the humming bees while that of moving pendulum is not heard. [3]
Answer:
(a) Because sound after reflection reaches evenly to the entire hail.
(b) Because the frequency of vibration of wings of bees is in the audible range but frequency of vibrations of pendulum is below 20 Hz and hence can not be heard.
Section – D
(Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions)
Question 34.
(a) 1f 18g of pure water is electrolyzed, 2g of hydrogen and 16g of oxygen is obtained. Which law of chemical combination is illustrated by this statement?
(b) State the law of constant proportion. Illustrate with the help of an example.
(c) Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of law of conservation of mass?
(d) Which point of Dalton’s atomic theory came from law of constant proportions? [5]
OR
Account for the following:
(a) When sugar crystals dissolve in water, the level of water does not rise appreciably.
(b) Doctors advise to put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high fever.
(c) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid residue.
(d) A wooden table should he called a solid.
(e) Dogs generally hang out their tongue in summer.
Answer:
(a) Law of constant proportion.
(b) A compound prepared by any method contains the same elements in the fixed ratio by mass. For example, H2O contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 2: 16, i.e., 1: 8 by mass.
(c) Atoms can neither be subdivided, created nor destroyed.
(d) Atoms of different elements combine in simple whole number ratios to form chemical compound.
OR
(a) Particles of sugar crystals occupy the space between the particles of water.
(b) The excess heat from the body is taken by high latent heat of vaporization of water. As a result, temperature of body decreases.
(c) By the process of sublimation, naphthalene gets converted into vapours directly.
(d) Because a wooden table has a fixed shape as well as fixed volume and it is incompressible also.
(e) Evaporation of saliva causes cooling.
Question 35.
Sunil while playing football with his friends got injured suddenly, His friends took him to the hospital and the doctor told him that he was suffering from a sprain and advised bed rest. Every afternoon, his friends visited him to enquire about his health.
(a) During a sprain, which type of tissue are stressed?
(b) Name the tissue which connects bones to muscles in humans.
(c) What causes dislocation of bones?
(d) Name the tissue which connects bone to bone. [5]
OR
How do respiratory gases move in and out of the cell? Taking the example of photosynthesis explain how the exchange of gases takes place. What is the composition of plasma membrane?
Answer:
(a) Ligaments. With severe sprain, ligaments tear completely or separate from the bone.
(b) A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to bones.
(c) Breakage of ligaments. Ligaments are torn when dislocation occurs, as ligaments are
flexible bands of fibrous tissue.
(d) A ligament is a fibrous connective tissue which attaches bone to bone and usually serves to hold structures together.
OR
Respiratory gases move in and out of the cell by diffusion. The concentration of CO2, is more in air as compared to cells so it moves in. O2 is produced in photosynthesis thus a concentration of O2 is higher in a cell so it moves out. The plasma membrane is made up of proteins and lipids.
Question 36.
Identify the following graphs and answer the questions:
(a) Which of the graphs indicates negative acceleration? Why? [2]
(b) What do you infer from the graph where the velocity time graph is parallel to the time axis? [1]
(c) Which of the graphs represents a body moving with initial velocity not equal to zero but with constant acceleration? [1]
(d) Name the type of motion in which speed remains constant but the velocity of the body changes. [1]
OR
(a) Write examples to distinguish between a balanced and an unbalanced force. [1]
(b) Explain whether the force is balanced or unbalanced in the following situations.
(i) A suitcase is dropped from a certain height.
(ii) A bicycle is moving in a straight line with constant velocity.
(iii) In the game of tug of war, the two teams apply force but the rope doesn’t move.
(iv) A ball rolling on the ground stops after some time.
Answer:
(a) A Graph (i); since velocity decreases with time.
(b) Since velocity is constant the acceleration of the body is zero.
(c) Graph (iii); Since the velocity-time graph does not pass through the origin.
(d) Accelerated motion
OR
(a)
- A game of tug-of-war where there is a tie is an example of a balanced force.
- A box sliding down an inclined plane is an example of an unbalanced force where the gravitational force exceeds the frictional force.
(b)
- Unbalanced: Unbalanced since it is under the action of gravity which exceeds air resistance.
- Balanced: Because velocity is constant.
- Balanced: Since rope does not go the either side, both are applying equal and opposite forces.
- Unbalanced: Since velocity of ball is decreasing.
Section – E
(Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based! data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.)
Question 37.
Composion of the nuclei of two atoms T and Y’ are shown below.
| X | Y | |
| Protons | 4 | 4 |
| Neutrons | 4 | 6 |
(a) Give the atomic number of X. Why?
(b) Give the number of electrons in each.
(c) Give the mass number of X and Y.
(d) Mention the relationship between the two atoms. [4]
Answer:
(a) 4; as the number of protons is 4, the atomic number is 4.
(b) Number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. So, X has 4 electrons and Y has 4 electrons.
(c) Mass number i.e., atomic mass of element X = Number of protons + Number of neutrons = 4+4 = 8 u
Mass number i.e., atomic mass of element Y = Number of protons + Number of neutrons = 4 + 6 = 10 u
(d) Relationship between X and Y: Isotope.
The atomic number of both the elements is same, but their atomic masses are different.
Question 38.
Stomata are minute openings found in the epidermis of plant leaves. Each stoma allows carbon dioxide, oxygen, and water vapour to diffuse in and out of a plant’s internal tissues.
(a) What are stomata?
(b) Each stoma is surrounded h’ a pair of elongated cells. What is this pair of cells known as?
(c) Why do desert plants have smaller and fewer stomata as compared to rainforest plants? Explain your answer. [4]
OR
What does each stoma do?
Answer:
(a) Stomata are minute openings found in the epidermis of plant leaves.
(b) Guard cells
(c) Water is scarce in deserts. Smaller and fewer stomata help desert plants to minimize the loss of water.
OR
Each stoma allows carbon dioxide, oxygen, and water vapour to diffuse in and out of a plant’s internal tissues.
Question 39.
The graph shows the distance-time graph of three objects A, B and C. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
(a) Would the three objects ever meet at a single point on the road?
(b) How far has C travelled when B passes A?
(c) Which of the three objects, A, B, and C, travels the fastest? Why? [4]
OR
When the object is at rest, what type of graph will be a distance-time graph? Why?
Answer:
(a) All the three objects A, B, and C never meet at a single point.
(b) 8km.
(c) Object B.
Speed = Distance, Time
From the graph, we see that, A travels from 6 to 12 km in 2 hours. B travels from 0 to 12 km in 1.4 hours. C travels from 2 to 12 km in 1.6 hours. Since, B travels the most distance, in the smallest time, it is traveling the fastest.
OR
Straight line parallel to time axis.
The slope is zero when the straight line is parallel to time axis. And the slope of the distance-time graph gives velocity.