Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Set 10 with Solutions
Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- The question paper consists of five sections (A, B, C, D, and E) with 30 questions in total.
- All questions are compulsory.
- Question numbers 1-12 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
- Question numbers 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50-60 words each.
- Question numbers 19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100-120 words each. There is an internal choice in two of the 4 marks questions
- Question numbers 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
- Question numbers 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170-180 words.
- There is an internal choice in 6 marks questions.
Section-A (12 Marks)
Question 1.
Which region has experienced conflicts and tensions, including the breakup of Yugoslavia in the 1990s? [1]
(a) Southeast Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) Central America
(d) Balkan States
Answer:
(d) Balkan States
Explanation:
The Balkans, a region in Southeast Europe, experienced conflicts and tensions, including the breakup of Yugoslavia in the 1990s
Question 2.
When was the Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples adopted by the United Nations? [1]
(a) 1948
(b) 2007
(c) 1945
(d) 2010
Answer:
(b) 2007
Explanation:
The Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on September 13, 2007.
Question 3.
Which of the following statements is incorrect? [1]
(a) India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries.
(b) India’s relations with Russia are an important aspect of India’s foreign policy.
(c) Russia and India share a vision of a bipolar world order.
(d) Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects.
Answer:
(c) Russia and India share a vision of a bipolar world order.
Explanation:
India had no vision of the bi-polar world and it was one of the founding members of the NAM as well.
Question 4.
WTO is serving as the successor to which organization? [1]
(a) GATT
(b) IMF
(c) WEF
(d) UNSC
Answer:
(a) GATT
Explanation:
The World Trade Organization (WTO) serves as the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and its provisions. It was established in 1995 to provide a more comprehensive and enforceable framework for international trade and to address emerging issues in global commerce. The WTO oversees trade negotiations, resolves trade disputes, and promotes fair and transparent trade practices among its member countries
Assertion Reason Questions: Directions for Q.Nos. 5 and 6
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read these statements and choose one correct answer from the given options.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Question 5.
Assertion (A): The ideology of Hindutava was first given by V.D. Savarkar.
Reason (R): The politics of BJP is based on this ideology. [1]
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The ideology of Hindutva was the brainchild of V.D. Savarkar who fought for the independence of India. BJP was also inspired by this ideology.
Question 6.
Assertion (A): Many developed nations have adopted strict visa policies.
Reason (R): Developed nations wanted to restrict the immigration of foreign nationals so that there is less competition for jobs and resources in their nation. [1]
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
There are several developed nations of the world who have formulated the strict visa policies to restrict the entry of the foreign nationals which put burden on their resources
Question 7.
The Indian Peace Keeping Forces pulled were out of …………………. without attaining its objectives. [1]
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Myanmar
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka
Explanation:
The IPKF or the Indian Peace Keeping Force were moved out of Sri Lanka before it could achieve the desired results.
Question 8.
……………. is the single largest contributor of economic resources to the UN. [1]
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA
Explanation:
The United States of America is the single largest contributor of economic resources to the United Nations.
Question 9.
Who among the following is considered as ‘The Chief Architect of India’s Foreign Policy’ due to their contributions to the NAM. [1]
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) V.P Singh
Answer:
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
Explanation:
Jawahar Lal Nehru was the chief architect of the India’s foreign policy. His one of the great initiatives was the NAM.
Question 10.
Who was the leader of ‘Congress for Democracy’? [1]
(a) J. P. Narayan
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Ch. Charan Singh
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Answer:
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Explanation:
“Congress for Democracy” saw its leadership in the name of Jagjivam Ram.
Question 11.
The Right to Information Act was passed by the Parliament in the year ……………… [1]
(a) 2004
(b)2003
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Answer:
(c) 2005
Explanation:
The famous RTI act was passed in the year 2005 which gave powers to the common Indian citizen to inquire about the decisions of the government.
Question 12.
The group in Sri Lanka that demanded a separate state for the Tamils. [1]
(a) LTTE
(b)MNF
(c)NNC
(d) Al-Qaeda
Answer:
(a) LTTE
Explanation:
The LTTE fought for the rights of the Tamil people and demanded a separate state for them.
Section-B (12 Marks)
Question 13.
When was the first WSF meeting organized? [2]
Answer:
(i) The first WSF (World Social Forum) meeting was organised in Porto Alegre, Brazil in 2001.
(ii) The fourth WSF meeting was held in Mumbai in 2004.
(iii) The latest WSF meeting was held in Brazil in March 2018.
Question 14.
Why is the Government of India suspicious of Pakistan? Give two reasons. [2]
Answer:
Following are the two reasons:
(i) The Indian government blames the Pakistan Government for using a strategy of low-key violence by helping the Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against India.
(ii) The Indian Government also believes that Pakistan had aided the pro-Khalistani militants with arms and ammunitions during the period 1985-1995.
Question 15.
How was the reorganisation of North-East India completed and by when? [2]
Answer:
Reorganisation of the North East was almost completed in 1972. Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972. Manipur and Tripura too emerged as separate states. The states of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh came into being much later. Nagaland had become a state in 1963.
Question 16.
Mention any four basic elements that emerged among political parties after 1990s. [2]
Answer:
(i) Most parties believe that new economic policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
(ii) All political parties now support reservation of seats for the ‘backward classes’ in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
(iii) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement.
(iv) Sometimes regional parties influence the Central Government to divert more annual budget funds to their states at the expense of other states.
Question 17.
Which action of the Congress government was criticised by BJP as an unnecessary concession and ‘appeasement’ of the minority community? [2]
Answer:
On the demand of some Muslim leaders, the government passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 that nullified the Supreme Court’s judgment. This action of the government was opposed by many women’s organisations, many Muslim groups and most of the intellectuals. The BJP criticised this action of the Congress government as an unnecessary concession and ‘appeasement’ of the minority community.
Question 18.
What was the state of Indian economy during the tenure of Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri? [2]
Answer:
Some of the key features of the Indian economy during the tenure of PM Lal Bahadur Shastri were as follows:
(i) The Indian economy had been stagnating in the previous few years. There had been a slowdown in the rate of industrial growth and the balance of payments problem had worsened.
(ii) But, at that moment, the most serious problem was the severe shortage of food. Agricultural production had slowed down, there was severe drought in several states in 1965 and buffer food stocks were depleted to a dangerous extent.
(iii) Clearly, long-term measures were needed to deal with the situation. But those were not taken, particularly as the chief ministers of food grain surplus states refused to cooperate.
Section-C (20 Marks)
Question 19.
What were the reasons which led to the mid-term elections in 1980? [4]
Answer:
Reasons:
(i) The Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
(ii) The Janata Party government could not bring a fundamental change in the policies from those pursued by the Congress.
(iii) The Janata Party split and the government which was led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months.
(iv) Another government led by Charan Singh was formed due to the support of the Congress Party which later decided to withdraw its support resulting in resignation of Charan Singh Government within four months.
Question 20.
How did Hyderabad become part of India? [4]
Answer:
Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory.
Its ruler carried the title, ‘Nizam’, and he was one of the world’s richest men. The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
He entered into what was called the Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the Indian government were going on.
In the meantime, a movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam’s rule gathered force. The Communists and the Hyderabad Congress were in the forefront of the movement.
The Nizam responded by unleashing a para-military force known as the Razakars on the people.
Hyderabad became a part of India following Operation Polo in September 1948. It was a military operation in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely state, merging into the Indian Union.
Question 21.
Describe any three important events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969. [4]
Answer:
The three events were:
(i) Indira Gandhi v/s the Syndicate: Indira Gandhi attempts to assert her position within the government and the party. She chose her advisors from outside the party and slowly sidelined the Syndicate. Her left-wing programme (ten point programme) was not appreciated by the Syndicates.
(ii) Her policy measures like the nationalization of banks, abolition of ‘privy purse’ led to serious differences between her and Morarji Desai.
(iii) The main reason was the Presidential election of 1969 when Ms. Gandhi supported V. V. Giri, and independent candidate as opposed to N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the official Congress Candidate. The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalized the split in the party. The Congress group led by the Syndicate came to be called as Congress (Organization) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be called Congress (Requisitionists). Indira Gandhi projected the split as an ideological divide between socialist and conservatives between the pro-poor and pro–rich.
Question 22.
The construction of democratic institutions was not given the same attention and priority as the demands of economic transformation. Examine. [4]
OR
How to critics view Globalization in India?
Answer:
The construction of democratic institutions was not given the same attention and priority as the demands of economic transformation. The constitutions of all these countries were drafted in a hurry and most, including Russia, had a strong executive President with the widest possible powers that rendered elected parliaments relatively weak. In Central Asia, the Presidents had great powers, and several of them became very authoritarian. For example, the Presidents of Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan appointed themselves to power initially for ten years and then extended it for another ten years. They allowed no dissent or opposition. A judicial culture and independence of the judiciary was yet to be established in most of these countries
OR
The Globalization has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its critical arguments can be categorized
- Economic:
(a)Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
(b)It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich richer and the poor poorer.
(c)Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing nations. - Political:
(a)Welfare functions of the state have been reduced.
(b) Sovereignty of states have been affected.
(c)States have become weak to take their own decisions. - Cultural:
(a)People lose their age-old values and traditions.
(b)The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
(c)It leads to the shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.
Question 23.
Why did Nehru want to generate atomic energy? [4]
OR
What are the key principles and objectives of India’s nuclear policy?
Answer:
Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology for rapidly building a modern India. A significant component of his industrialisation plans was the nuclear programme initiated in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha. India wanted to generate atomic energy for peaceful purposes. Nehru was against nuclear weapons. So he pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament.
OR
India’s Nuclear Policy:
- India advocates no first use and reiterates India’s commitment to global verifiable on nondiscriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear-weapon-free world.
- Pt. Nehru always promoted science and technology to build a modern India, i.e., initiated a nuclear programme in the late 1940s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
- India was against nuclear weapons, hence pleaded many nuclear disarmament with superpowers.
- India always considered NPT as discriminatory and refused to sign on it.
- Even India’s first Nuclear Test in May 1974 was termed as a peaceful explosion and India argued to use nuclear power for peaceful purposes only.
Section-D (12 Marks)
Question 24.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
India has supported the restructuring of the UN on several grounds. It believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in a changing world. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation among states. India believes that development should be central to the UN’s agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of international peace and security. One of India’s major concerns has been the composition of the Security Council, which has remained largely static while the UN General Assembly membership has expanded considerably. India considers that this has harmed the representative character of the Security Council. It also argues that an expanded Council, with more representation, will enjoy greater support in the world community. India supports an increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members. Its representatives have argued that the activities of the Security Council have greatly expanded in the past few years. The success of the Security Council’s actions depends upon the political support of the international community. Any plan for restructuring the Security Council should, therefore, be broad-based. For example, the Security Council should have more developing countries in it. [1+1+1+1]
(i) According to India, how the development should be if it is proposed by UN?
(a) Central to the UN’s agenda
(b) Central to the superpowers of the world
(c) Central to the developing nations
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Central to the UN’s agenda
(ii) What has been one of India’s major concerns in the UN?
(a) Ethnic Conflicts
(b) Refugee Crisis
(c) Reforms of the Security Council
(d) General Assembly
Answer:
(c) Reforms of the Security Council
(iii) Where does India that the suggests UN should include more countries to represent?
(a) In the Security Council
(b) In the General Assembly
(c) In UNESCO
(d) In ICJ
Answer:
(a) In the Security Council
(iv) What, according to India, should be the plan for restructuring of the Security Council?
(a) Broad based
(b) Large scale
(c) More elaborative
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Broad based
Question 25.
In the given political outline map of India, five states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format. [1+1+1+1]
(i) A state which was the protectorate of India but became 22nd state of Indian Union.
(ii) A state which is related with Article 370 of Indian Constitution.
(iii) A state where the Chipko Movement began.
(iv) A state which is highly affected by the Naxalites.
Answer:
Corresponding Numbers Answers Corresponding alphabets
(i) Sikkim D
(ii) Jammu and Kashmir A
(iii) Uttarakhand C
(iv) West Bengal B
Question 26.
Study the given map and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+1+1]
(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) Identify the lady in the cartoon and why is she smiling?
(iii) Identify the person wearing garland in winning position.
(iv) Who is lying on the ground?
Answer:
(i) Presidential elections of 1969.
(ii) Indira Gandhi on winning of her candidate V.V. Giri in presidential elections.
(iii) V.V. Giri.
(iv) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
Section-E (24 Marks)
Question 27.
What was the Earth Summit? How far has the Summit proved to be useful? Explain. [6]
OR
How did the princely state of Manipur was acceded to India?
Answer:
The Earth Summit was a conference on environment and development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June, 1992. The focus of this conference was primarily on global environment and the relationship between economics, science and the environment in the political context.
It proved to be useful through following steps:
(i) The Rio Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, and forestry and recommended a list of development practices called ‘Agenda 21’.
(ii) The implementation of ‘Agenda 21’ was intended to involve action at international, national, regional and local levels.
(iii) There was unanimity on combining economic growth with ecological responsibility. This approach to development is commonly known as sustainable development.
(iv) However, some critics indicated that Agenda 21 was biased in favour of economic growth rather than ensuring ecological conservation.
(v) Forest principles is an informal name given to the non-legally binding authoritative statement of principles for a global consensus on the management, conservation and sustainable development of all types of forests. It is a non-legally binding document that makes several recommendations for conservation and sustainable development forestry. In 1994, the Montreal Process began as a result of the forest principles.
OR
(i) A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained.
(ii) Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections in Manipur in June 1948 and the state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.
(iii) In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur there were sharp differences over the question of merger of Manipur with India.
(iv) While the state Congress wanted the merger, other political parties were opposed to this.
(v) The Government of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja into signing a Merger Agreement in September 1949, without consulting the popularly elected Legislative Assembly of Manipur.
(vi) This caused a lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.
Question 28.
Briefly explain two positive and two negative developments in Indo-Bangladesh relations. [6]
OR
Evaluate any three major factors responsible for making the European Union a political force from being an economic force.
Answer:
Two positive developments:
(i) Economic relations have been improving considerably in the last ten years.
(ii) Bangladesh is the part of India’s ‘Look East Policy’ to link up South-east Asia via Myanmar.
(iii) Both the countries have co-operated regularly on the issues of disaster management and environment. (Any Two)
Two negative developments:
(i) Difference over several issues including the sharing of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters.
(ii) India is unhappy on issues of entry of Bangladeshi immigrants into Indian territory, its support for the anti-Indian Islamic fundamentalist groups and Bangladesh’s refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to reach North-eastern India.
OR
(i) The Council of Europe established in 1949 was a step forward in political cooperation.
(ii) European Economic Community in 1957 acquired a political discussion leading to creation of European Parliament.
(iii) Disintegration of Soviet Union put Europe on a fast track and resulted in the establishment of the European Union in 1992.
(iv) It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(v) EU being the world’s biggest economy has its own political influence also.
Detailed Answer:
The Council of Europe established in 1949, was a step forward in political cooperation.
(A) The EU has political influence. Two members of the EU, Britain and France, hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council. The EU includes several non-permanent members of the UNSC. This has enabled the EU to influence some US policies such as the current US position on Iran’s nuclear programme. Its use of diplomacy, economic investments, and negotiations rather than coercion and military force has been effective as in the case of its dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation.
(B) European Economic Community in 1957 acquired a political discussion leading to creation of European Parliament.
(C) It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
(D) EU being the world’s biggest economy has its own political influence also. Its GDP is slightly larger than that of the United States. Its currency can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(E) Its share of world trade is three times larger than that of the United States allowing it to be more assertive in trade disputes with the US and China. All these factors are responsible for making European Union a political force from being an economic force.
Question 29.
Which social issues were brought to the attention of national media and Union government by the Anti-Arrack movement? [6]
OR
In 2014 elections, people have voted for a stable government at the center. Do you think that the era of coalition has ended? Support your answer with suitable arguments?
Answer:
(i) Anti-arrack movement was started against the consumption of alcohol (arrack) by men in Nellore (AP). This habit was affecting the physical and mental health of men.
(ii) Women in Nellore rose together to protest against arrack and agitated for closure of wine shops.
(iii) It was a movement that emerged due to domestic violence caused by consumption of Arrack.
(iv) It was against the habit of drinking which was affecting the rural economy.
(v) This movement emerged through the women who had enrolled in the adult literacy drive.
(vi) This movement highlighted the issues of injustice and of gender inequalities.
(vii) This movement demanded equal representation of women in politics. (Any six points)
OR
After independence, Congress party came in power. It ruled over the country as a democratic government till 1977. One after the other, the government was represented by Congress Prime Ministers like Jawahar Lal Nehru, Lal Bahadur Shastri and then Indira Gandhi.
(i) It was due to some political upheaval, a state of emergency was declared in 1975. During emergency, all the opposition leaders were jailed and their constitutional powers were ceased.
(ii) It made all the opposition leaders unite and form the first united party in the name of Janata Party which came to power in 1997 in the General Elections held soon after the emergency.
(iii) Though it could not last long, but it started a new concept of rule in India. One after the other, India saw many governments ruled by alliance group, except a few single-party-led governments.
(iv) But with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the center all of which have either been coalition government or minority government supported by other parties which did not join the government.
(v) The National Front government in 1989, the United Front government in 1996 and 1997, the NDA government in 1997, 1998 and 1999 and then UPA government in 2004 and 2009 and again BJP-led NDA government in 2014 have been the coalition governments in India.
(vi) In none of these governments did any one single party have the number enough to form the government on its own.
(vii) But in 2014, there was a change in the pattern. BJP could gain 284 seats in the Lok Sabha elections which was sufficient to form the government on its own as the minimum number of seats required was only 272. But, as the election was fought with the pre-poll alliance by NDA led by BJP, so the present government was formed with PM Narendra Modi, the leader of BJP.
(viii) This election shows that people are turning to the single party government at the Center which may be stable. People have experienced the lack of stability, lack of policy decision and lack of proper development in the government ruled by the coalition group.
Question 30.
Evaluate the pro-democracy struggle of the people in Nepal on the basis of any three happenings. [6]
OR
What are the functions of WTO?
Answer:
The main challenge to democracy in Nepal is characterised by the triangular conflict between three entities:
(i) Monarchist forces- They support the king and include armed forces. The king, with the support of the army, has contained the expansion of democracy in Nepal.
(ii) The Democrats- This includes a section of pro-democracy political parties and common people who wage a struggle for democracy in the region. They have been demanding a more open, responsive and accountable system.
(iii) Maoists- They believe in armed rebellion against the king and the ruling class. In fact, Nepal faces the challenge of establishing democracy, setting up a new constituent assembly, dealing with unrest in Terai regions and dealing with Maoists
OR
Some of the key features of WTO are as follows:
(i) To ensure optimum utilization of world resources.
(ii) Establishing and Enforcing Rules for International Trade.
(iii) It is the global forum for monitoring and negotiating further trade liberalization.
(iv) Resolution Of Trade Disputes.
(v) Increasing Transparency in The Decision-Making Process.
(vi) Collaboration Between International Economic Institutions.
(vii) Safeguarding The Trading Interest of Developing Countries