CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Set 5 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions :

1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections A, B, C, D, and E.
3. Section A – Question number1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.
4. Section B – Question number 18 and 19 are Source-based questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section C – Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
6. Section D – Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
7. Section E – Question number 29 and 30 are Map-based questions.

Section-A (17×1=17 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options. [1]
1. Assertion (A): The beginning of human geography did not start with the interaction of environment and human beings.
2. Reason (R): The concerns of human geography have a long temporal though the approaches to articulate them have changed over time.
(a) Both the statements are true, statement 2 does not explain statement 1 correctly.
(b) Both the statements are true and statement 2 correctly explains the statement 1.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
(d) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.

Question 2.
Which one of the following pairs is not matched correctly regarding land degradation? [1]

Activities	Agents of degradation
(a) Glaciers	Natural Agent
(b) Industrial Wastelands	Human Agents
(c) Land with scrub	Both natural and human Agents
(d) Degraded forests	Natural Agents
Answer: (d) Degraded forests	Natural Agents

Question 3.
The earth comprises two major components: [1]
(a) Atoms and molecules
(b) Hydrosphere and lithosphere
(c) Nature and life forms, including human beings
(d) Environment and natural resources
Answer:
(c) Nature and life forms, including human beings

Question 4.
Arrange the steps followed in ‘slash and burn agriculture’. [1]
(i) The farmers move to a new patch of land and clear it by slashing and burning.
(ii) Vegetation is cut, cleared and set on fire.
(iii) Ashes add to soil fertility and the cleared patch of land is cultivated.
(iv) After harvesting the crop for a few years, the field is abandoned.
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Question 5.
Which of the following is not an approach in human geography? [1]
(a) Exploration and description
(b) Areal differentiation
(c) Spatial organisation
(d) Quantitative revolution
Answer:
(d) Quantitative revolution

Question 6.
Among the following places where do we find petroleum reserves? [1]
(a) Sedimentary basins of Assam
(b) Damodar
(c) Sone
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(a) Sedimentary basins of Assam

Question 7.
When was ‘Our Common Future’ published? [1]
(a) 1965
(b) 1987
(c) 1967
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1987

Question 8.
Basis of International Trade can be categorised into: [1]
(a) Difference in national resources, National boundary, Stage of economic development
(b) Difference in national resources, Population factors, National boundary
(c) National boundary, Population factors, Stage of economic development
(d) Difference in national resources, Population factors, Stage of economic development
Answer:
(d) Difference in national resources, Population factors, Stage of economic development

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not included in Bharatmala, which is a proposed umbrella scheme for the development of roads and highways? [1]
(a) State Roads
(b) Backward areas, religious and tourist places
(c) Longest road of the world
(d) District headquarter connectivity
Answer:
(c) Longest road of the world

Question 10.
Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct options with the help of given Codes. [1]

Column I (Port)	Column II (Location)
I. Kandla Port	1. Karnataka
II. Jawaharlal Nehru Port	2. Goa
III. Marmagao Port	3. Maharashtra
IV. New Mangalore Port	4. Gulf of Kuchchh

Codes:
I II III IV
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
Answer:
(c) 4 3 2 1

Question 11.
Which objective of watershed management given below is correct? [1]
I. To create a balance among natural elements as well as in society.
II. To enable the villagers to conserve water for various uses such as drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both I and II

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a source of noise pollution at harbour? [1]
(a) Loading and unloading activities being carried at harbour
(b) Noise of aircraft etc., passing over harbour
(c) Heavy traffic at harbour
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 13.
Assured and speedy transportation, along with efficient communication, promote _________. [1]
(a) cooperation and unity among scattered people
(b) unity among scattered people in urban areas
(c) cooperation among scattered people in rural areas
(d) socialisation among scattered people
Answer:
(a) cooperation and unity among scattered people

Question 14.
Identify the country with the highest density of railway network. [1]
(a) USA (b) Germany (c) Brazil (d) Thailand
Answer:
(a) USA

Read the following case study and answer questions no. 15 to 17.
Communication
Human beings have used different methods long-distance communications of which the telegraph and the telephone were important. The telegraph was instrumental in the colonisation of the American West. During the early and mid-twentieth century, the American Telegraph and Telephone Company (AT&T) enjoyed a monopoly over USA’s telephone industry. In fact, the telephone became a critical factor in the urbanisation of America. Firms centralised their functioning at city headquarters and located their branch offices in smaller towns. Even today, the telephone is the most commonly used mode. In developing countries, the use of cell phones, made possible by satellites, is important for rural connectivity. Today, there is a phenomenal pace of development. The first major breakthrough is the use of optic fiber cables (OFC). Faced with mounting competition, telephone companies all over the world soon upgraded their copper cable systems to include optic fiber cables. These allow large quantities of data to be transmitted rapidly, securely, and are virtually error-free. With the digitisation of information in the 1990s, telecommunication slowly merged with computers to form integrated networks termed as Internet.

Question 15.
During which century did the American Telegraph and Telephone Company (AT & T) enjoy a monopoly over USA’s telephone industry? [1]
(a) During the mid-nineteenth century
(b) During the early and mid-twentieth century
(c) During the early nineteenth century
(d) During the late twentieth century
Answer:
(b) During the early and mid-twentieth century

Question 16.
Which scientific technology has tremendously improved rural connectivity in developing countries? [1]
(a) Telephone
(b) Telegraph and telephone
(c) The use of cell phones, made possible by satellites
(d) The use of Speed post and telegraph
Answer:
(c) The use of cell phones, made possible by satellites

Question 17.
What is the major breakthrough and up gradation adopted in the telephone companies across the world? [1]
(a) Underground cabling
(b) Change to copper cable systems
(c) A blend of copper cables and OFC
(d) The use of optic fiber cables (OFC)
Answer:
(d) The use of optic fiber cables (OFC)

Section-B (2×3=6 Marks)
Source-based questions

Question 18.
Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
Case Study: A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard.
Human Health in Daurala
Based on the universal law ‘Polluter pays’, effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the human health with people’s participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of three years when Meerut based NGO had developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala Industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out results. The powerful logics, authentic studies and the pressure of people have brought a new lease of life to the twelve thousand residents of this village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Daurala sites drew the attention of the civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching to the groundwater table. The NGO conducted a door to door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water tank’s capacity in the village was enhanced and a 900m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of silt was removed paving way to large quantity of water so that it recharged the aquifers.

Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which has helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoons. 1000 trees have also been planted which have improved the environment.
(a) What is main reason for contaminated groundwater in Daurala?
(b) How the water problem of Daurala’s community got sorted?
(c) What steps were taken to improve the condition of Daurala?
Answer:
(a) Daurala’s groundwater contaminated due to untreated wastewater discharge from industries, which was leaching to the groundwater table.
(b) Water problem of Daurala’s community get sorted by providing 900m extra pipeline to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it.
(c) 1. Planted 1000 trees to improve the environment.
2. Rainwater harvesting structure have been constructed at different places.
3. Large quantity of silt was removed, that helped in recharging the aquifers.

Question 19.
Study the picture given below answer the following questions: [3]

(a) Identify the crop in the picture given above.
(b) Name the state in north India where this crop is grown.
(c) Name two states in western India which produce this crop.
Answer:
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat and Maharashtra

Section-C (4×3=12 Marks)
Short Answer type questions

Question 20.
(A) What is Cyberspace? Describe any two advantages of internet. [3]
OR
(B) Write five advantages of oceanic transport.
Answer:
(A) Cyberspace is the electronic digital world for communicating information over computer networks without physical movement of the sender and the receiver.

Advantages of internet are:
1. Cyberspace has expanded the contemporary economic and social space of humans through e-mail, e-commerce, e-learning and e-govemance.
2. Internet, together with fax, television and radio, will be accessible to more and more people across different place.

OR

(B) Advantages of oceanic transport are:

1. Oceanic transport provides a navigable highway in all directions with relatively low maintenance costs.
2. The energy costs associated with water transportation are comparatively lower.
3. It is a cost-effective means of transporting large or bulky cargo over long distances, especially between continents.
4. Oceanic transport accommodates the movement of heavy cargo, such as coal, cement, timber, and more, through inland waterways.
5. It plays a vital role in both domestic and international transport and trade.

Question 21.
Explain with examples three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world. [3]
Answer:
Three economic factors that influence the population distribution in the world are:

1. Minerals: Areas with mineral deposits attract industries and generate employment. Skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated. Example; KatangaZambia copper belt in Africa.

2. Urbanisation: Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication. Availability of civic amenities and attraction of urban life draws people to cities. It leads to rural urban migration. Example; Mega cities, metropolitan cities of the world.

3. Industrialisation: This provides job opportunities and attract large numbers of people. Provide different types of jobs to different categories of people, for example semi skilled labour, and literate and illiterate people. Example; Kobe-Osaka region of Japan.

Question 22.
Explain the main features of rural settlements. [3]
Answer:
Features of rural settlements are:
1. Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land.
2. Agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing and other primary activities dominate them.
3. These settlements are small in size, with a slow rate of growth and expansion.

Question 23.
(A) “The Golden Quadrilateral is a milestone endeavour of the National Highway Development Project”. Elaborate. [3]
OR
(B) State the three main advantages of waterways.
Answer:
(A) The Golden Quadrilateral is one of the major projects taken up by the NHAI in the country, under different phases. The Golden Quadrilateral comprises of a construction of 4/6 lane, high density traffic corridor, which is 5,846 km long, connecting India’s big four metropolises- Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. With its construction, the time, distance and cost of movement among these mega cities will be reduced considerably. Therefore, it is a milestone endeavour of the National Highway Development Project (NHDP).

OR

(B) The three main advantages of waterways are as follows:
1. It is an important mode of transport for both, passengers as well as cargo traffic in India.
2. It is the cheapest means of transport and the most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material.
3. It is a fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transp

Section-D (5×5=25 Marks)
Long Answer Type Questions

Question 24.
Describe the main features and development of commercial grazing in different types of grasslands. [5]
Answer:
Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive. Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on permanent ranche’s. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels, which are fenced to regulate over-grazing.

When the grass of one parcel is removed due to grazing, animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture. This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets.

Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis. The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and healthcare of the animals. New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and United States of America are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised.

Question 25.
(A) Discuss about factors that are responsible for tourist attractions. [5]
OR
(B) Analysis about concentration of service sector in developed countries.
Answer:
(A) The factors that are responsible for tourist attractions are as following-

1. Climate: Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny weather for beach holidays. This is one of the main reasons for the importance of tourism in Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands.
2. Landscape: Many people like to spend their holidays in an attractive environment, which often means mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely altered by man.
3. History and Art: The history and art of an area have potential attractiveness. People visit ancient or picturesque towns and archaeological sites, and enjoy exploring castles, palaces and churches.
4. Culture and Economy: These attract tourists with a penchant for experiencing ethnic and local customs. Besides, if a region provides for the needs of tourists at a cheap cost, it is likely to become very popular. Home-stay has emerged as a profitable business such as heritage homes in Goa, Madikeri and Coorg in Karnataka.

OR

(B) Developed countries, characterised by high levels of education and lower population densities, tend to have more job opportunities in the service sector and fewer in manufacturing. This is due to the following factors:

1. Manufacturing in developed countries is highly mechanised, resulting in a larger proportion of non-production workers engaged in administration, data collection, processing, and decision-making roles.
2. Professions related to advertising and marketing are more lucrative in developed nations like those in Europe and the USA, where these industries are highly developed, and the demand for such services is substantial.
3. The Internet, the world’s largest electronic network, connects over 100 million people globally. It has expanded economic activities across different countries and allowed professionals to move away from congested city centres and offices. This technology enables individuals to work from home and conduct business worldwide without direct face-to-face contact.
4. The Internet has facilitated the global dissemination of information about products and services, benefiting businesses and consumers alike. It has significantly aided students in their educational pursuits.

Question 26.
(A) Describe in brief the different trends of population growth in the world from an early period to the present day. [5]
OR
(B) Explain the three components of population change in the world. Analyse the impacts of population change.
Answer:
(A) The trends in population growth are as follows:

1. In the early periods of history, i.e., 8000 to 12000 years ago, the population grew at a slow rate. The population of the era was 8 million.
2. The count of the population in the first century was below 300 million.
3. By 1600 AD, the world population increased to 0.5 billion, as expansion in trade and industrial revolution increased settlements.
4. World population touched 1 billion in 1830 due to advancement in the field of science and technology.
5. In the next 100 years, i.e., in 1930, the population doubled to 2 billion due to improved medical, healthcare and sanitation facilities.
6. In 1960, the population was 3 billion and in 1975, it was 4 billion. After that one billion was added in every 12 years.
7. There is a great variation among regions in doubling their population.

OR

(B) The three components of population change in the world are:

1. Crude Birth Rate: It is referred to as a number of live births in a year per thousand of the population. It leads to increase in population.
2. Crude Death Rate: It is referred to as a number of deaths in a particular year per thousand of the population in a particular region. It leads to decline in population.
3. Migration: It refers to the displacement of people from their place of origin to their place of destination. In-migration increases the population. Out-migration decreases the population.

Impacts of population change are as follows:

1. If the population change results in high population growth, then it puts pressure on the resources leading to their scarcity and other problems.
2. Population change resulting in the decline of the population shows that the available resources are not sufficient to sustain the population.

Question 27.
(A) Mention and discuss the land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue records. [5]
OR
(B) Give the importance of Common Property Resources (CPR).
Answer:
(A) The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue records are as follows:

1. Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from the area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.

2. Barren and Wastelands: The lands which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc., normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology.

3. Land put to Non-agricultural Uses: Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc., are included in this category. An expansion in the secondary and tertiary activities would lead to an increase in this category of land use.

4. Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands: Most of this type of land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned by the village panchayat comes under ‘Common Property Resources’.

5. Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included in Net sown Area): The land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this category. Much of this land is privately owned.

6. Culturable Wasteland: Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this category. It can be brought under cultivation after improving through reclamation practices.

7. Current Fallow: This is the land that is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving rest to the land. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.

8. Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also cultivable land that is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorised as culturable wasteland.

9. Net Sown Area: The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.

OR

(B) Common Property Resources (CPRs) are collectively owned by the state for the benefit of the community. CPRs play a crucial role in providing fodder for livestock, fuel for households, and various minor forest products such as fruits, nuts, fibers, and medicinal plants.

1. In rural areas, these lands hold particular significance for the livelihoods of landless individuals, marginal farmers, and other vulnerable groups. Many of them rely on income generated from their livestock due to limited access to land.

2. CPRs are also important for women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas. They have to devote long hours in collecting fuel and fodder from a degraded area of CPR.

3. CPRs can be defined as a community’s natural resource, where every member has the right of access and usage with specified obligations, without anybody having property rights over them. Community forests, pasture lands, village water bodies, and other public spaces where a group larger than a household or family unit exercises rights of use and carries the responsibility of management are examples of CPRs.

Question 28.
How do the physical factors affect the population distribution in India? [5]
Answer:
The physical factors that affect the population distribution in India are:
1. Terrain and Topography: The Great Plains of North India supports higher population density and is home to the largest population concentration in India; land for agriculture, development of transport, industries and other economic activities being largely responsible; mountainous, plateau regions with steep slopes and adverse circumstances discourage population concentration.

2. Climate: Extreme, harsh climate discourages the concentration of population, like the cold climate of the Himalayas or the hot climate of the Thar desert; moderate climate is most favoured; rainfall also determines the population distribution.

3. Soil: An important factor for agricultural countries like India; fertile soil supports larger population, while infertile soil has low population concentration; The Great North Indian Plains, the Coastal Plains and the black soil regions of the Deccan Plateau of India are a few examples.

4. Availability of Water: Water is essential for population concentration; it is required for various purposes like irrigation, industries, transport and domestic affairs; most of the population in India is concentrated in the river valleys.

5. Mineral Resources: These attract population as an economic resource; the Chhota Nagpur Plateau areas engulfing Jharkhand and Odisha is a major example.

Section-E (2×5=10 Marks)
Map-based questions

Question 29.
On the given political map of the world, the following seven features are shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the lines marked near each feature. [5]
A. Busiest port of the world on the mouth of Yangtze River in China
B. Busiest Airport of Asia
C. A canal that connects Mediterranean Sea with Red Sea.
D. An important Iron and steel centre in Russia.
E. Nation that has emerged as leading country of medical tourism in the world.
F. Western terminal of Trans-Canadian Railway.
G. Important industrial region in South-Asia.

Answer:
A. Shanghai
B. Beijing
C. Suez Canal
D. St. Petersburg
E. India
F. Victoria (Canada)
G. Damodar Valley

Question 30.
On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate symbols: [5]

A. Identify the port that handle a large portion of India’s crude oil imports.
B. Natural harbour in the state of Kerala.
C. Coal mine in Jharkand.
D. Oil refineries Gujarat.
E. The state which is the leading producer of jute in India.
F. The state which is the leading producer of wheat in India.
G. Identify the state has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2011 Census.
Answer:
A. Jawaharlal Nehru port
B. Kochi port
C. Bokaro
D. Jamnagar
E. West Bengal
F. Uttar Pradesh
G. Tamil Nadu