Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions. carrying marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words
- Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section – A (20×1=20 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Match the correct column: [1]
Column A | Column B | ||
(i) | Abanindranath Tagore | (a) | Jana Gana Mana |
(ii) | Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay | (b) | The Folklore of Southern India |
(iii) | Rabindranath Tagore | (c) | Bharat Mata image |
(iv) | Natesa Sastri | (d) | Vande Mataram |
Options:
(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(D) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
Explanation:
(i) Abanindranath Tagore designed the image of Bharat Mata.
(ii) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Vande Mataram (National Song).
(iii) Rabindranath Tagore wrote our National Anthem Jana Gana Mana.
(iv) Natesa Sastri wrote the folklore of southern India.
Question 2.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows: [1]
Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of the ship “Alexandra”?
(A) Irish emigrants waiting to board the ship
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship
(C) Emigrants leaving for the US
(D) Transport to the gold mines.
Answer:
(B) Meat being loaded on the ship
Explanation: Till the 1870s, animals were shipped live from America to Europe but live animals took up a lot of ship space and also became unfit to eat. Hence, meat became an expensive luxury for European poor.
Question 3.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
(i) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east-flowing peninsular rivers.
(ii) It is highly fertile.
(iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
Options:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil
(B) Main features of black soil
(C) Main features of arid soil
(D) Main features of laterite soil
Answer:
(A) Main features of alluvial soil
Question 4.
The species whose population has declined to a level from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate are called: [1]
(A) Endemic species
(B) Extinct species
(C) Vulnerable species
(D) Normal species
Answer:
(C) Vulnerable species
Question 5.
The ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex. [1]
Which of the following is correct with respect to the ethnic composition of Belgium?
(A) 59% of people live in the Flemish region and speak the Dutch language
(B) 30% of people living in the Wallonia region speak French.
(C) 10% of Belgians speak German
(D) 1% Belgian speaks Russian
Answer:
(A) 59% of people live in the Flemish region and speak the Dutch language
Question 6.
The practice of taking power away from the union and state governments and giving it to local governments is called decentralization. [1]
Pick the major steps that were taken towards decentralization in 1992.
(A) To hold regular elections of Local Government Bodies.
(B) At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
(C) State Election Commission has been created in each State.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.
Question 7.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
‘However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one countries better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income.’
(A) Comparison between countries
(B) Comparison of total population
(C) Comparison of average income
(D) Per capita income
Answer:
(D) Per capita income
Question 8.
Which of the following professions belongs to the tertiary sector of economy? [1]
(A) Fisherman
(B) Farmer
(C) Factory worker
(D) Teacher
Answer:
(D) Teacher
Explanation: The tertiary sector is also called! as service sector.; This sector also includes essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. Examples: education, utilities, transportation, hospitality, etc. For example, teachers, doctors, tailors.
Question 9.
______________ forest is land that is a reserved forest, and over which the government has property rights. [1]
(A) Reserved
(B) Protected
(C) Unclassed
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Protected
Explanation: A protected forest is land that is a reserved forest, and over which the government has property rights, as declared by a state government under section 29 of the Indian Forest Act 1927.
Question 10.
Study the given graph and answer the following: [1]
About how much percent of land area is plains?
(A) 27%
(B) 72%
(C) 30%
(D)43%
Answer:
(D)43%
Explanation: India has variety of relief features. About 43 percent of the land area is plain, which is utilized for agriculture and industry.
Question 11.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for books.
Reason (R): Chinese paper reached Europe via the Silk Route.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Copying was laborious, expensive, and time-consuming. Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be carried! around or read easily.; Therefore, their circulation remained limited.
Question 12.
Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house? [1]
(A) Papal State
(B) Lombardy
(C) Venetia
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Explanation: During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states of which only One Sardania-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Question 13.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement (i): Dams are built just for electricity generation.
Statement (ii): Dams were traditionally built to impound rivers and rainwater that could be used later to irrigate agricultural fields.
(A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct.
(C) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect.
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct.
Answer:
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
Question 14.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): We are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and the people will have control over the rulers.
Reason (R): The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a Government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and the expectations of the citizens.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: People of India have Right to Vote and choose their ruler and they can also have control over their Rulers. Wherever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making and that affects them all in knowing the public opinion and drawbacks of the ruling party. Then only the government would be accountable to the citizens and responsible to their needs and expectations.
Question 15.
Created in 1980, it champions the socio-religious values of India. [1]
Choose the philosophy of Bhartiya Janta Party.
(A) Cultural nationalism
(B) Religion above all
(C) No discrimination on the basis of caste
(D) Equal opportunity for all
Answer:
(A) Cultural nationalism
Explanation: The essence of cultural nationalism is that it unites people of different races in a single and recognized culturally nationalistic society.! It holds importance in a society filled with multiple racial sections.
Question 16.
Find the incorrect option from the following: [1]
(A) For development, people look at a mix of goals.
(B) It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society decreases.
(C) However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater acceptance of working women.
(D) A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business.
Answer:
(B) It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society decreases.
Explanation: In Indian society, dignity of a person is measured by their work or job. So if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity increases in the society.
Question 17.
Underemployment is the underuse of a worker because a job does not use the worker’s skills. [1]
Which one of the following occupations suffers from underemployment?
(A) Teacher
(B) Casual labour
(C) Bank employee
(D) Police constable
Answer:
(B) Casual labour
Explanation: Casual labour suffers from under employment because sometimes the supply of labourers is greater than its demand.
Question 18.
Sacred Groves are: [1]
(A) parts of large forests that have been left untouched by the local people.
(B) places for grazing animals
(C) forests earmarked for commercial felling of trees.
(D) forests used for planting trees with medicinal properties.
Answer:
(A) parts of large forests that have been left untouched by the local people.
Question 19.
Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community participation? [1]
(A) Joint Forest Management
(B) Beej Bachao Andolan
(C) Chipko Movement
(D) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
Answer:
(D) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
Question 20.
In terms of ____________ India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world. [1]
(A) population
(B) languages
(C) forests
(D) religions
Answer:
(B) languages
Section – B (2×4=8 Marks)
Very Short Answer Questions
Question 21.
Study the world map thoroughly and tell what it depicts about India. [2]
Answer:
The map depicts the trade routes that linked India to the world at the end of the seventeenth century.
Question 22.
Bauxite is an ore from which aluminum is obtained. [2]
Mention any two uses of Bauxite keeping the above statement in mind
OR
Copper metal is malleable, ductile and a good conductor. List down the names of the industries in which copper is used because of its properties and the copper rich regions of India.
Answer:
Uses of Bauxite:
(i) Bauxite is used in a lot of industries like the chemical industry, refractory, abrasive, cement, steel, and petrol industry amongst others.
(ii) Bauxite is the best and only material used for making aluminum metal. More than 90 percent of the world production of bauxite is consumed in the aluminum industry.
OR
(i) Copper is mainly used in electrical cables, electronics and chemical industries.
(ii) The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbham district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.
Question 23.
The unorganized sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
How can the workers in the unorganized sector be protected? Explain. [2]
Answer:
The workers can be protected in the following ways:
- Farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage and marketing outlets.
- In urban areas, casual workers need government support for procuring raw material.
- Small-scale industries also need support for procuring raw material and marketing of the goods.
Question 24.
Why is it necessary to increase the number of banks mainly in rural areas? Explain. [2]
Answer:
It is necessary to Increase number of banks:
- To reduce the dependence on informal sector of credit.
- To provide cheaper loans.
- To provide accessibility towards loans for the poor.
Section – C (3×5=15 Marks)
Short Answer – Based Questions
Question 25.
Simon Commission was greeted with slogan ‘Go back Simon’ at arrival in India. [2]
Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.
Answer:
Simon Commission:
- The new government in Britain constituted a Statutory Commission; under Sir John Simon.
- It was set up in response to the Nationalist Movement.
- The Commission was to look into the functioning of the Constitutional System in India and suggest changes.
- The problem was that the Commission didn’t have a single Indian Member.
- When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back, Simon’.
- All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations.
Question 26.
“A wide ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” [2]
Support the statement with examples in context of Globalisation.
Answer:
A wide ranging choice of goods:
- We have a wide variety of goods and services before us in the market.
- The latest models of the digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions manufactured by leading manufacturers of the world are available in the market.
- Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads.
- Today Indians are buying cars produced by nearly all the top companies in the world.
- A similar explosion ofbrands can be seen for many other goods.
Question 27.
There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. [2]
Give two broad measures for it. As concerned citizens, how can you help to conserve energy?
OR
What is soil erosion? Mention any two methods which can help in reducing soil erosion.
Answer:
Twin planks/measures:
(i) Promotion of energy conservation.
(ii) Increased use of renewable energy sources. As concerned citizens, we can do our bit by:
- Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
- Switching off electricity when not in use.
- Using power-saving devices.
- Using non-conventional sources of energy.
OR
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.
Two methods which can help in reducing soil erosion are:
- Contour ploughing – Ploughing along the contour lines.
- Terrace farming – Cutting steps on the slopes making terrace.
- Strip cropping – growing strips of grass between the crops.
Question 28.
Describe three advantages of the political expression of caste differences. [2]
Answer:
Advantages of the political expression of caste differences are:
- It gives disadvantaged groups the opportunity to demand a share in power and decision-making.
- Many political parties take up the issue of 31. ending caste discrimination.
- Measures for uplifting the status of the backward castes will be undertaken.
Question 29.
Study the graph given below and answer the questions. [2]
The graph shows the number of people who find democracy as a suitable form of government for their nation.
Why is democracy preferred over other types of governments.
Answer:
Democracy is preferred over other types of government because:
- It enhances the dignity of the individual, improves the quality of decision-making, and provides a method to resolve conflicts.
- Democracy also allows us to rectify our own mistakes.
- Democracy permits citizens to participate in making laws and public policies by regularly choosing their leaders and by voting in assemblies or referenda.
Section – D (5 ×4=20 Marks)
Long Answer-Based Questions
Question 30.
‘Public sector contributes to the economic development of India.’ Justify the statement. [5]
OR
’Public welfare is primarily the responsibility of the public sector’ In view of the given statement, list down the reasons that limit the role of the private sector in public welfare.
Answer:
- It promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
- It creates employment opportunities.
- It generates financial resources for development.
- It ensures equality of income, wealth and thus, a balanced regional development.
- It encourages development of small, medium and cottage industries.
- It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
- Contributes to community development, Human Development Index, i.e. health and educational services.
OR
- Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits and not public welfare.
- Some of the services require large sums of money, which is beyond the capacity of the private sector.
- Collecting money from thousands of people who would use this facilities is a humongous task.
- Even if the private sector provide these facilities, the rate charged for it would be very high.
- Thus, the government has to undertake the task of providing facilities such as construction of roads, public hospitals and schools to ensure its availability for everyone.
Question 31.
“The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support the statement with arguments. [5]
OR
What happened during the year following 1815 when the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground? Explain.
Answer:
The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship or crisis in Europe due to the following reasons:
- There was an enormous increase in population all over Europe.
- There were more jobseekers than the employment opportunities. Migration of rural people to the cities further worsened the situation.
- Small-scale producers in towns were sometimes faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England.
- In the regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
- Due to increased population, the demand for food increased. It led to the rise in food prices. This led to an increase in the prices and there was widespread pauperism in the entire country.
OR
- Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
- To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom.
- Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom. One such individual was the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini.
- He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berg, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states.
- Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So, Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations.
- This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty. Following his model, secret societies were set up in Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland.
- Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republic frightened the conservatives. Mettemich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.
Question 32.
“Complaints are treated as testimony to the success of Democracy.” Justify this statement. [5]
OR
“Democracy is very important for promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens.” GP Support this statement with arguments.
AnsComplaints are treated as testimony:
It shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at powerholders and the high and the mighty.
A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project. It transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.
OR
Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual because:
- Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
- The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of Democracy.
- Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated groups for equal status and equal opportunities.
- It provides methods to resolve conflicts.
- Any other relevant point?
Question 33.
Name the two major beverage crops grown in India. Describe their growing areas. [5]
OR
Name any two major fiber crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required to grow these two crops.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are the two major beverage crops grown in India.
(a) Tea:
- An example of plantation agriculture is an important beverage crop introduced in India by the British.
- Grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
- Requires warm and moist frost-free climate, frequent showers evenly distributed over the year.
- A labour-intensive industry, requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour.
- Major producing states are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.
- India is the leading producer as well as exporter of tea in the world
(b) Coffee:
- India produces about four percent of the world’s total coffee.
- The Arabica variety produced in the country is in great demand all over the world.
- It is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
OR
Cotton:
- Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau.
- It requires high temperature, light rainfall, or irrigation.
- It requires 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
- It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
Jute:
- Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
- High temperature is required during the time of its growth.
Section – E (4×3=12 Marks)
Case-Based Questions
Question 34.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July, 1942, passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India.
On 8 August, 1942, in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous ‘Do or Die’ speech. The call of ‘Quit India’ almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the thick of the movement.
People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement that brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha. The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.
34.1 What factors led Gandhi to launch Quit India Movement? [1]
Answer:
The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of the World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhi to launch a movement calling the complete withdrawal of the British from India.
34.2 What was the main demand of the Quit India Movement? [1]
Answer:
The main demand of the movement was to end the British rule in India and to get the cooperation of Indians against fascism.
34.3 When and where was the Quit India Resolution passed? [2]
Answer:
The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay.
Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow. [4]
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative. Here are some of the elements of the Belgian model.
- The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government. Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally.
- Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.
- Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. The French-speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the Central Government.
- Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government. This ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community- Dutch, French and German-speaking- no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.
You might find the Belgian model very complicated. It indeed is very complicated, even for people living in Belgium. But these arrangements have worked well so far. They helped to avoid civic strife between the two major communities and a possible division of the country on linguistic lines. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, Brussels was chosen as its headquarters.
35.1 When and why was the Belgian Constitution amended by its leaders? [1]
Answer:
Between 1970 and 1993 the Belgian leaders amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country, keeping in mind the existence of their regional differences and cultural diversities.
35.2 How is power distributed among governments in Belgium? [1]
Answer:
Many powers of the Central Government have been given to State Governments of the two regions of the country. The State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government
35.3 Which is the third kind of government in Belgium, and who elects it? [2]
Answer:
Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government. This ‘Community Government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.
Question 36.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
How do we count the various goods and services and know the total production in each sector?
With so many thousands of goods and services produced, you might think this is an impossible task! Not only would the task be enormous, you might also wonder how we can add up cars and computers and nails and furniture. It won’t make sense!
You are right in thinking so. To get around this problem, economists suggest that the values of goods and services should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers. For example, if 10,000 kgs of wheat is sold at? 8 per kg, the value of wheat will be? 80,000. The value of 5000 coconuts at? 10 per coconut will be? 50,000. Similarly, the value of goods and services in the three sectors are calculated, and then added up.
Remember, there is one precaution one has to take. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the final goods and services. Take, for instance, a farmer who sells wheat to a flour mill for? 8 per kg. The mill grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for? 10 per kg. The biscuit company uses the flour and things such as sugar and oil to make four packets of biscuits.
It sells biscuits in the market to the consumers for? 60 (? 15 per packet). Biscuits are the final goods, i.e., goods that reach the consumers. Why are only ‘final goods and services’ counted? In contrast to final goods, goods such as wheat and the wheat flour in this example are intermediate goods. Intermediate goods are used up in producing final goods and services. The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods that are used in making the final good.
Hence, the value of? 60 for the biscuits (final good) already includes the value of flour (Rs 10). Similarly, the value of all other intermediate goods would have been included. To count the value of the flour and wheat separately is therefore not correct because then we would be counting the value of the same things a number of times. First as wheat, then as flour and finally as biscuits. The value official goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is.
In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.
36.1 What method do the economists suggest in counting the various goods and services? [1]
Answer:
In counting the various goods and service, economists suggest that the value of goods and services should be used rather than adding up the actual numbers.
36.2 What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? [1]
Answer:
The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular period in all the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country.
36.3 What is the role of the Central Government Ministry in measuring GDP? [2]
Answer:
In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a Central Government Ministry. This ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.
Section – F (2+3=5 Marks)
Map Skill-Based Question
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
(B) The place where mass massacre took place in Amritsar on 13 April 1919.
Answer:
(A) Dandi March
(B) Jallianwalla Bagh
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) Haldia- Major seaport
(ii) Nuclear Power Plant in UP
(iii) Tehri-Dam
(iv) Thiruvananthapuram- International Airport
Answer: