Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions. carrying marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words
- Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section – A (20×1=20 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union -1707’ from the following options. [1]
(A) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(B) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer:
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
Explanation: The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.
Question 2.
Identify the correct statements regarding the Act of Union. (1)
I. It was signed in 1707.
II. It was signed between England and Scotland.
III. It resulted in the establishment of democracy in Scotland.
IV. It resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Codes
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, III, and IV
Answer:
(d) I, III, and IV
Question 3.
Arrange the steps in the correct sequence: [1]
Resource planning in India involves:
(p) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up for implementing resource development plans.
(q) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
(r) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
Options:
(A) p,q & r
(B) Only p & q
(C) q,p & r
(D) Only q & r
Answer:
(C) q,p & r
Question 4.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the nation of Poland? (1)
I. Poland was partitioned in the 18th century.
II. Poland was ruled by Russia, and the Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle against Russian Dominance.
III. With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people ended as well.
Codes
(a) Only I
(b) Both II and IT
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III
Answer:
(b) Both I and II
Question 5.
A belief that BEST believes in that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is: [1]
(A) Power-sharing
(B) Central Government
(C) Majoritarianism
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(C) Majoritarianism
Explanation: It means that the majority community rules a Country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.
Question 6.
Following is the image of crop cultivation which is used both as food and fodder. It is a Kharif crop that requires a temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. Identify the crop from the given options. (1)
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Bajra
(d) Rice
Answer:
(c) Bajra
Question 7.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
Mohan is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month. Mohan repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the years his debt will most likely –
(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount.
(B) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less.
(C) Reduce – as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment.
(D) Be repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour
Answer:
(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount.
Explanation: Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.
Question 8.
Identify the following crop with the help of given clues. (1)
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country
Initially, its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills.
It is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Millets
Answer:
(b) Coffee
Question 9.
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. Identity the Indian states which have been deforested due to mining and overgrazing activities: [1]
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(B) Karnataka, Kerala
(C) Ladakh and Kashmir
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
Question 10.
Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets? (1)
(a) Urad and Arhar
(b) Maize and Wheat
(c) Bajra and Ragi
(d) Sesamum and Groundnut
Answer:
(c) Bajra and Ragi
Question 11.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of India.
Reason (R): India is rich in good-quality iron ore.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 12.
Which among the following is known as a system of checks and balances? (1)
(a) The Supreme Court Judges can check the powers of the High Court Judges.
(b) The President of India appoints the Prime Minister and further the Prime Minister checks the powers of the President.
(c) The judges are appointed by the Executive and further judges can check the functioning of the Executive or laws made by the Legislature.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) The judges are appointed by the Executive and further judges can check the functioning of the Executive or laws made by the Legislature.
Question 13.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement (i): Since 1951, over 5,000 sq km of forest was cleared for river valley projects.
Statement (ii): Large-scale development projects have contributed significantly to the loss of forest.
(A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Answer:
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Question 14.
Annette studies in a Dutch Medium School in the Northern region of Belgium. Many French-speaking students in her school want the medium of instruction to be French. Her parents approach the respective government to realise the desire of the child. What could be the measure Belgian Government will adopt in such a situation? (1)
(a) Majoritarian Measures
(b) Policy of Accommodation
(c) Despotic Measures
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Policy cf Accommodation
Question 15.
When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to: [1]
(A) biological difference between men and women.
(B) unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
(C) unequal child sex ratio.
(D) absence of voting rights for women in democracies.
Answer:
(B) unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
Explanation: The gender divisions are not based on biology, but on social expectations and stereotypes. It is regarding unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
Question 16.
Read the following data and select the appropriate option from the following. (1)
State | Infant Mortality Rate per 1,000 Iive Births (2017) | Literacy Rate % 2017-18 | Net Attendance Ratio (Per 100 persons) secondary stage (age 14 and 15 years) 2017-18 |
Haryana | 30 | 82 | 61 |
Kerala | 10 | 94 | 83 |
Bihar | 35 | 62 | 43 |
Why Bihar has a high infant mortality rate as compared to other states? Identify the reason for the given options.
(a) Due to lack of health facilities
(b) Due to lack of education facilities
(c) Low guidance
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Question 17.
Which one of the following is not a limitation of the barter system?
(A) Lack of double coincidence of wants.
(B) Certain products cannot be divided.
(C) Most often double coincidence of wants is not available.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above
Explanation: The barter system had many limitations including lack of double coincidence of wants, lack of a common unit of value, difficulty of future payments or contractual payments, and difficulty of storage of value and transfer of value.
Question 18.
Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank and UNDP? (1)
(a) Health Status
(b) Gold Reserves
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Educational Levels
Answer:
(c) Per Capita Income
Question 19.
Rihand Dam is located on river Rihand, a tributary of __________ river. [1]
(A) Sutlej
(B) Son
(C) Godavari
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(B) Son
Explanation: The Rihand River Valley Project is in Uttar Pradesh. It is on the Rihand River which is the tributary of the Son River.
Question 20.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment the most? Select the correct option. (1)
(a) Factory workers
(b) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned farmlands.
(c) Private company owners and employees.
(d) Government officials
Answer:
(b) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned farmlands.
Section – B (2×4=8 Marks)
Very Short Answer Questions
Question 21.
Identify the script and tell when it was produced. [2]
Answer:
This manuscript is from the Rigveda. This manuscript was produced in the eighteenth century in the Malayalam script.
Question 22.
What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? (2)
Answer:
The World Bank uses the criterion of per capita income for classifying countries. Countries with an income of US $ 2500 or less were classified as low per capita income countries. Countries with per capita income of US $ 49300 per annum and above in 2019 are classified as high-income countries
Question 23.
‘Income is the most important component of development.’ Analyze the statement. [2]
OR
‘Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well’. Analyze the statement.
Answer:
Income is an important criterion of development because it tells us what an average person is likely to earn and also gives some idea about the rising standard of living. The prosperity of a country depends not only on its national income but also on the number of people who would share it. Therefore, more income means more development.
OR
Income alone is not an adequate indicator of a good life. For example, income cannot promise a pollution-free environment or protect us from infectious diseases unless we take preventive measures.
Question 24.
State any two factors which make forests a very useful resource for humans. (2)
Answer:
The following factors make forests a very useful resource for humans
- Forests provide raw materials like resins, gums, wood, etc for many industries, like paper industry, chemical industry, etc.
- Forests hold the soil firmly and prevent soil erosion. They also help in bringing rainfall and cool the environment.
Section – C (3×5=15 Marks)
Short Answer – Based Questions
Question 25.
Alluri Sitarama Raju was an Indian nationalist active in the struggle for Indian independence. [3]
Justify the above statement by describing the role of Alluri Sitarama Raju in Andhra Pradesh during 1920s.
Answer:
Role of Alluri Sitarama Raju in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh
(i) Alluri Sitarama Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers like making astrological predictions, healing people and surviving bullet shots.
(ii) The rebels proclaimed him as an incarnation of God.
(iii) Raju was inspired by Gandhiji’s NonCooperation Movement.
(iv) He persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
(v) But at the same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence.
(vi) He used guerrilla warfare to achieve swaraj.
Question 26.
The development goals of a person are different from another person. Justify the statement. (3)
Answer:
Different persons have different notìons of development because the life situations of different persons are different. For example, the development goals of a girl from a rich urban family will surely be different from a girl from a farming family in a village. It is because their situations, lifestyle, and status are very different from each other.
A goal of a person is something, which is entirely dependent on his or her present life situation. Over some time, if the situation changes, automatically goals of a person will also change.
Question 27.
Name the National Political Party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Mention any four features of that party. [3]
Answer:
The national political party, which espouses secularism and the welfare of weaker sections and minorities is the Indian National Congress.
Four features of this party are listed below:
(i) Founded in 1885.
(ii) Dominated Indian politics, both at the national and state levels, for several decades after India’s Independence.
(iii) Ruling party at the center till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989. After 1989, its support declined.
(iv) A Centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation.
Question 28.
The following table gives the GÐP in rupees (crores) by the three sectors
Year | Primary | Secondary | Tertiary |
2000 | 52,000 | 48,500 | 1,33,500 |
2013 | 8,00,500 | 10,74,000 | 38,68,000 |
(i) Calculate the share of the three sectors in GDP for 2000 and 2013.
(ii) What conclusions can we draw from the calculations? (3)
Answer:
(i) Share of sectors in GDP for 2000
Total GDP of three sectors
= (52000 + 48500 + 1,33,500)
= 234000 crore
Share of Primary sector = \( \frac{52,000}{2,34,000} \times 100\) = 22.22%
Share of Secondary sector = \(\frac{48,500}{2,34,000} \times 100\) =20.72%
Share of Tertiary sector = \(\frac{1,33,500}{2,34,000} \times 100 \)=57%
Share of sectors in GDP for 2013
Total GDP of three sectors =₹ (8,00,500 – 10,74,000 + 38,68000) = ₹ 57,42,500 crore
Share of Primary sector = \(\frac{8,00,500}{57,42,500} \times 100\) =13.93%
Share of Secondary sector = \(\frac{10,74,000}{57,42,500} \times 100 \) =18.70%
Shae of Tertiary sector = \(\frac{38,68,000}{57,42,500} \times 100\) = 67.35%
(ii) Conclusions drawn from the bar diagram are
Share of Primary sector in GDP has decreased.
Share of Secondary sector in GDP also decreased.
Share of the Tertiary sector in GDP has increased.
Question 29.
The graph given below shows the shares of employment in the three sectors of the economy. Analyze the data provided and answer the following questions. [3]
(i) What was the share of the primary sector in employment in the year 1970-71?
Answer:
More than approximately 70%
(ii) What was the share of the primary sector in employment in the year 2009-10?
Answer:
55%
(iii) Which sector has the lowest share in the employment in 2009-10?
Answer:
Secondary sector
Section – D (5 ×4=20 Marks)
Long Answer-Based Questions
Question 30.
Gandhi’s idea of satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth. In the light of this statement, assess the idea of satyagraha.
Or
How did plantation workers in Assam have their understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj? Explain. (5)
Answer:
After arriving in India in 1915, Gandhiji successfully organized satyagraha (which he had applied in South Africa), in various parts of India.
- The idea of satyagraha consists of
- The idea of satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
- This idea suggested that if the cause was true if the struggle was against injustice, then the physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
- Without being aggressive, the Satyagrahi could win the battle.
- One can win the oppressor even by appealing to the conscience.
- Oppressors should be made to see the truth.
- Through this struggle, the truth was bound to triumph (victory) ultimately.
- Gandhiji believed that this dharma of non-violence could unite all Indians.
Or
- The plantation workers in Assam had understood the notion of Swaraj in the following ways
- For plantation workers in Assam freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed and it also meant extending or keeping a link with the village from which they had come.
- Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.
- When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers refused to obey their authorities, left the plantations, and headed home.
- They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their village.
Question 31.
“The 33 per cent of area should be under forest.” Justify the statement highlighting the advantages of forests. [5]
OR
“The conservation projects are now focussing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its components.” Justify with proper examples.
Answer:
The 33 per cent of area should be under forests because of the following reasons:
(i) They reduce flooding and improve water quality by slowing the rate at which rainfall runs off and flows into rivers.
(ii) They provide fallen leaves to feed the soil and aquatic organisms.
(iii) They play an important role in checking soil erosion by holding the soil firmly to the ground.
(iv) Forests increase the level of groundwater by showing the amount of rainfall runoff that percolates into the soil and replenishes our main source of drinking water.
(v) Forests improve air quality, especially in summer, by lowering temperatures and filtering dust. These also absorb various gases
like ozone, carbon, monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, airborne ammonia and heavy metals and release oxygen.
OR
The conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its components. Following examples proves the above given statement:
(i) In the 1960s and 1970s conservation approach was specific. On the basis of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, various projects were implemented.
(ii) These projects were implemented to protect various species of animals including tigers, rhinoceros, crocodile, etc.
(iii) But now conservation projects are focusing on biodiversity i.e. whole gamut of species along with their habitat in a specific climatic region
and not just on few components Also the conservation measure are now intensified.
(iv) Wildlife Act was revised in 1980s and 1986 to include various insects like butterflies and plants in the conservation planning.
(v) Along with national parks, wildlife sanctuary, biosphere reserves are now designed and promoted in order to protect species along with
natural habitat and whole complex of ecological webs.
(vi) Participation of community as well as local people now gave a new dimension to conservation of planning.
Question 32.
Explain how the increasing number of industries are responsible for exerting pressure on the available freshwater resources of Earth.
Or
Mention any five reasons for water pollution in India. (5)
Answer:
The number of industries are increasing after independence and have become a reason for pressure on existing freshwater resources. Freshwater is almost limited. It is renewable, but over-exploitation and mismanagement of this resource by industries are aggravating the water stress day by day in the following ways
- Heavy industries is a huge source of water pollution, it produces pollutants that are extremely harmful to people and the environment.
- The industries for their energy consumption purpose depend on hydroelectric projects and this electricity is generated through damming the rivers upstream. So, the river almost dries in the lower stream areas.
- Industries dump the chemical waste in the river, lake, etc which then consequently pollute the water and make it toxic. Chemicals from industries also contaminate the groundwater through seepage of industrial wastes. So, the increasing number of industries exert pressure on existing freshwater resources.
Or
The five reasons for water pollution in India are as follows
- Industries discharge various chemicals and hazardous waste into water sources such as lakes, ponds, and canals without treating them which causes pollution.
- Modern agricultural practices use chemicals in the form of fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides which flow into rivers or seep into groundwater causing pollution
- Human uses water for drinking, preparation of food, bathing for cleaning the house, etc. Most of the used water is drained out through municipal drains and poured into a river or lake causing pollution.
- Exploring for oil and gas under the seabed involves some risks to the marine environment. The consequence of oil spills is water pollution.
- Nuclear power plants, nuclear weapon testing, and laboratories where nuclear wastes are discharged into the water sources and pollute the entire water sources of a region.
Question 33.
“Workers are exploited in Unorganised sector”.
Do you agree with the statement? Explain reasons in support of your answer. [5]
OR
Compare the economic activities of the private sector with those of public sector.
Answer:
Unorganized Sector: Unorganized sector is a sector which has small and scattered units largely outside the control of the government.
Yes, workers are exploited in the unorganized sector.
Reasons are as follows :
(i) There are no rules and regulations followed.
(ii) Jobs are low paid and often not regular.
(iii) No provision of overtime is there and no paid holidays or leave is given.
(iv) Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave without reason.
(v) Some kind of work is seasonal and temporary workers are employed. They become unemployed after the season is over.
(vi) No other facilities like provident fund, gratuity or sick leave are given.
(vii) Working conditions are often poor. No allowances are given.
(viii) No medical benefit is given.
OR
(i) The government has ownership on most of the assets in the public sector and it provides all the services. Railways and post and telegraph
are examples of the public sector. The primary motive of the public sector is not earning profits rather making public welfare.
(ii) Ownership of assets and delivery of services rests in the hands of private individuals or companies in the private sector. Companies such as Tata Iron and Steel Company and Reliance Industries are examples of the private sector. Activities of the private sector are guided with the ultimate objective of earning profits.
(iii) There are several things required by the society which the private sector cannot provide at reasonable cost, so these are provided by the public sector; for example- construction of bridges, roads, railways, harbours, generation of electricity, provision of irrigation facilities,
etc.
(iv) There are certain activities which the public sector is required to support. The private sector may not perform production or
conduct business without the support of the government.
(v) There are many activities which are the primary responsibility of the government. It is required that the government makes expenses.
Section – E (4×3=12 Marks)
Case-Based Questions
Question 34.
Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow.
Shyamal tells us that every season he needs loans for cultivation on his 1.5 acres of land. Till a few years back, he would borrow
money from the village moneylender at an interest rate of five percent per month (60% per annum). For the last few years, Shyamal has been borrowing from an agricultural trader in the village at an interest rate of three percent per month. At the beginning of the cropping season, the trader supplies the farm inputs on credit, which is to be repaid when the crops are ready for harvest. Besides the interest charge on the loan, the trader also makes the farmers promise to sell the crop to him. In this way, the trader can ensure that the money is repaid promptly. Also, since the crop prices are low after the harvest, the trader can make a profit from buying the crop at a low price from the farmers and then selling it later when the price has risen.
We next meet Arun who is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Arun has 7 acres of land. He is one of the few persons in
Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 percent per annum, and can be repaid anytime in the next three years. Arun plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop. He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes in a cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them.
(i) When Shyamal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader, he paid a lesser interest rate. Why?
(ii) In the above case/source, which is the most favorable term of credit/loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation?
(iii) State the merits of formal sector of credit. (4)
Answer:
(i) When Shyamal was borrowing from a local agricultural trader in the village, he paid a lesser interest rate because a part of credit was to be paid in kind and other in cash.
(ii) The most favourable terms of credit loan borrowed by Arun for land cultivation are specified rate of interest and fixed period.
(iii) The merits of formal sector of credit are
It provides loans at a fixed rate and terms.
It gives loans not just for profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries and small borrowers, etc.
Question 35.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows : [4]
Do democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens? It will be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. We have seen in the earlier chapters how democracies accommodate various social divisions.
We saw in the first chapter how Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations. Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups.
But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes. But the example of Sri Lanka reminds us that a democracy must fulfil two conditions to achieve this outcome:
- It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent the general view. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
- It is also necessary that rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group, etc. Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of every election, different persons and groups may and can form a majority. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. If someone is barred from being in majority based on birth, then the democratic rule ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.
35.1 Can any society fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups? If not, then what should be done? [1]
Answer:
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences.
35.2 From the example of Sri Lanka, how would you judge that rule by majority opinion is not simple? [1]
Answer:
It is necessary to understand that Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion as in case of Sri Lanka. The majority always needs to work with minority so that governments function to represent the general view. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
35.3 What does rule by majority mean? [2]
Answer:
Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of every election, different persons and groups may and can form a majority. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. If someone is barred from being in majority based on birth, then the democratic rule ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.
Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. A second test for the Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language.
But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 percent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages.
States too have their official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official language of the concerned state. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi.
According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi-speaking
states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central Government
responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English-speaking elite. Promotion of ‘Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
(i) Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Why?
(ii) Evaluate the importance of continuing English as the official language of India.
(iii) State the difference between India and Sri Lanka based on status of the language. (4)
Answer:
(i) Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language because only 40 percent of people speak in Hindi. It is improper to give the status of national language to any particular language.
(ii) According to the Constitutions, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However many non-Hindi-speaking states demanded to continue English as an official language along with Hindi. Some states, especially states in South India, like Tamil Nadu revolted violently against the removal of English. Thus, the Central Government decided to continue English as an official language.
(iii) Sri Lanka declared Sinhala as the only official language whereas in our country, there is no national language.
Section – F (2+3=5 Marks)
Map Skill-Based Question
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The Indian National Congress Session was held at this place in 1927.
(B) The place where the movement of Indigo Planters started.
Answer:
(A) Madras
(B) Champaran district of Bihar
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) Software technology parks in UP.
(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu
(iii) Ramagundam thermal power station.
(iv) Coal mine in the state of Jharkhand
Answer:
(i) Software technology parks in UP – Noida
(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu Kalpakkam
(iii) Ramagundam thermal power station.
(iv) Coal mine in the state of Jharkhand Bokaro