Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions. carrying marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words
- Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section – A (20×1=20 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union -1707’ from the following options. [1]
(A) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(B) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer:
(C) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
Explanation: The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.
Question 2.
Mahatma Gandhi had come from South Africa where he had successfully fought the racist regime with a novel method of mass agitation. [1]
According to the above mentioned statement, choose the correct year in which Mahatma Gandhi returned to India.
(A) January, 1916
(B) January, 1915
(C) March, 1921
(D) April, 1917
Answer:
(B) January, 1915
Question 3.
Arrange the steps in the correct sequence: [1]
Resource planning in India involves:
(p) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up for implementing resource development plans.
(q) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
(r) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
Options:
(A) p,q & r
(B) Only p & q
(C) q,p & r
(D) Only q & r
Answer:
(C) q,p & r
Question 4.
India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These have contributed to the development of various types of soils. [1]
On the basis of the above given statement, identity the most likely states in which the various types of soils are found.
Column A | Column B | ||
(i) | Black Soil | (a) | Western |
(ii) | Alluvial Soil | (b) | Himalayan Region |
(iii) | Arid Soil | (c) | Northern Plains |
(iv) | Forest Soil | (d) | Maharashtra |
Options:
(A) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(B) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(C) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(D) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
Explanation: (i) Black soil is typical of the Basalt region spread over the northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows.
(ii) Northern plains are made of alluvial soil deposited by Himalayan rivers.
(iii) In Western Rajasthan, due to dry climate and high temperature, only after proper irrigation does Arid soil become cultivable
(iv) In hilly and mountainous areas enough rain forests are available.
Question 5.
A belief that BEST believes in that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is: [1]
(A) Power-sharing
(B) Central Government
(C) Majoritarianism
(D) Community Government
Answer:
(C) Majoritarianism
Explanation: It means that the majority community rules a Country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.
Question 6.
Which of the following pairs is incorrect? [1]
(A) State government- State List
(B) Central government- Union List
(C) Central and State- Concurrent List Government List
(D) Local government- Residuary powers
Answer:
(D) Local government- Residuary powers
Explanation: The local governments are not empowered to legislate on any matter. They are vested with limited powers. The Constitution of India has vested the ‘Residuary Powers’ with the Centre. But, the final authority to decide whether a matter falls under the list of Residuary powers or not, rests with the Supreme Court because it is the judiciary which decides whether any matter falls’ under residuary list or not.
Question 7.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
Mohan is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for credit who charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month. Mohan repays the money by working physically for the landowner on his farmland. Over the years his debt will most likely –
(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount.
(B) Remain constant – as he is working for the employer but is repaying less.
(C) Reduce – as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment.
(D) Be totally repaid – as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour
Answer:
(A) Increase – because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount.
Explanation: Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.
Question 8.
When and where did the Ford Motors set up their large plant in India? [1]
(A) In 1975 at Pune
(B) In 1985 at Gurugram
(C) In 1995 at Chennai
(D) In 2005 at Mumbai
Answer:
(C) In 1995 at Chennai
Question 9.
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. Identity the Indian states which have been deforested due to mining and overgrazing activities: [1]
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
(B) Karnataka, Kerala
(C) Ladakh and Kashmir
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(A) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
Question 10.
Study the picture given below and identify it : [1]
(A) Ramagundam plant
(B) Sewage Treatment Plant under Yamuna Action Plan
(C) Cable manufacturing facilities at HCL
(D) None of the Above
Answer:
(B) Sewage Treatment Plant under Yamuna Action Plan
Explanation: The Yamuna Action Plan (YAP) is a bilateral project between the Government of India and Japan, introduced in 1993. It is one of the largest river restoration projects in India.
Question 11.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of India.
Reason (R): India is rich in good quality iron ore.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 12.
A fast-spreading disease of Cattle Plague or Rinderpest had a terrifying impact on the African local economy. [1]
Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the information given above:
(i) Indentured Labour was abolished.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy.
(iii) The First World War was fought.
(iv) Potato Famine in Ireland
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
(B) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(C) (i) – (iv) – (iii) – (ii)
(D) (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (i)
Answer:
(A) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)
Explanation:
(i) Potato Famine in Ireland from 1845 to 1849.
(ii) Rinderpest (Cattle Plague) had a terrifying impact on livelihoods of the African people and the local economy in late 1880s.
(iii) The First World War was fought from 1914 to 1918.
(iv) Indentured Labour was abolished in 1921.
Question 13.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Statement (i): Since 1951, over 5,000 sq km of forest was cleared for river valley projects.
Statement (ii): Large-scale development projects have contributed significantly to the loss of forest.
(A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Answer:
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Question 14.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): India has a Federal system.
Reason (R): Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to Central Government.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: India has a Federal Government. There is a Central Government for the entire country and State Governments for different regions.
Question 15.
When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to: [1]
(A) biological difference between men and women.
(B) unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
(C) unequal child sex ratio.
(D) absence of voting rights for women in democracies.
Answer:
(B) unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
Explanation: The gender divisions are not based on biology, but on social expectations and stereotypes. It is regarding unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
Question 16.
Suppose there are four families in your locality, the average per capital income of whom is ₹ 10,000. If the income of three families is ₹ 6,000, ₹ 8000 and ₹ 14,000 respectively, what would the income of the fourth family be? [1]
(A) ₹ 5,000 (B) ₹ 10,000 (C) ₹ 12,000 (D) ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 12,000
Explanation: Average capital income = ₹ 10,000
Income of 1st family = ₹ 6,000
Income 2nd family = ₹ 8,000
Income of 3rd family = ₹ 14,000
Let the income of 4th family be x
\(Average Income =\frac{₹ 6000+8000+14000+x}{4}\)
\(₹ 10,000=\frac{₹ 28,000+x}{4}\)
₹ 40,000 = ₹ 28,000 + x
x = ₹ 40,000- ₹ 28, 000 = ₹ 12,000
Question 17.
Which one of the following is not a limitation of the barter system?
(A) Lack of double coincidence of wants.
(B) Certain products cannot be divided.
(C) Most often double coincidence of wants is not available.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above
Explanation: Barter system had many limitations like lack of double coincidence of wants, lack of a common unit of value, difficulty of future payments or contractual payments and difficulty of storage of value and transfer of value.
Question 18.
Which of the following countries possessed a huge bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel through Civil Service Examination? [1]
(A) China
(B) Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Britain
Answer:
(A) China
Explanation: China possessed a huge bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel through civil service examinations.
Question 19.
Rihand Dam is located on river Rihand, a tributary of __________ river. [1]
(A) Sutlej
(B) Son
(C) Godavari
(D) Brahmaputra
Answer:
(B) Son
Explanation: The Rihand River Valley Project is in Uttar Pradesh. It is on the Rihand River which is the tributary of the Son River.
Question 20.
The most common expression of Communalism is in: [1]
(A) everyday beliefs.
(B) religious prejudices.
(C) stereotypes of religious communities.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.
Explanation: The most common expression of communalism is in everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions.
Section – B (2×4=8 Marks)
Very Short Answer Questions
Question 21.
Identify the script and tell when it was produced. [2]
Answer:
This manuscript is from the Rigveda. This manuscript was produced in the eighteenth century in the Malayalam script.
Question 22.
Why is conservation of minerals important? [2]
Answer:
Minerals are non-renewable resources.
(i) Once consumed, they cannot be created or renewed.
(ii) They are available in limited quantity. Hence we have to use them in a sensible way.
Question 23.
‘Income is the most important component of development.’ Analyze the statement. [2]
OR
‘Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well’. Analyze the statement.
Answer:
Income is an important criterion of development because it tells us what an average person is likely to earn and also gives some idea about the rising standard of living. Prosperity of a country depends not only on its national income but also on the number of people who would share it. Therefore, more income means more development.
OR
Income alone is not an adequate indicator of a good life. For example, income cannot promise a pollution free environment or protect us from infectious diseases unless we take preventive measures.
Question 24.
How can the problem of underemployment be solved in India? [2]
Answer:
(i) Change in the education system can solve the problem of underemployment.
(ii) Government can provide more assistance to self-employed people.
(iii) Emphasis should be laid on full and more productive employment.
Section – C (3×5=15 Marks)
Short Answer – Based Questions
Question 25.
Alluri Sitarama Raju was an Indian nationalist active in the struggle for Indian independence. [3]
Justify the above statement by describing the role of Alluri Sitarama Raju in Andhra Pradesh during 1920s.
Answer:
Role of Alluri Sitarama Raju in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh
(i) Alluri Sitarama Raju claimed that he had a variety of special powers like making astrological predictions, healing people and surviving bullet shots.
(ii) The rebels proclaimed him as an incarnation of God.
(iii) Raju was inspired by Gandhiji’s NonCooperation Movement.
(iv) He persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
(v) But at the same time, he asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence.
(vi) He used guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.
Question 26.
How have intensive industrialization and urbanization posed a great pressure on existing freshwater resources in India? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Post-independent India witnessed intensive industrialisation and urbanisation.
(i) Apart from fresh water, MNCs also require electricity, which comes from hydroelectric power.
(ii) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have not only added to water and energy requirements, but have further aggravated the problem.
(iii) Large-scale migration from rural to urban areas is causing over exploitation of water resources.
Question 27.
Name the National Political Party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Mention any four features of that party. [3]
Answer:
The national political party, which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities is the Indian National Congress.
Four features of this party are listed below:
(i) Founded in 1885.
(ii) Dominated Indian politics, both at the national and state levels, for several decades after India’s Independence.
(iii) Ruling party at the centre till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989. After 1989, its support declined.
(iv) A Centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation.
Question 28.
“Democracy accommodates social diversities.” Support the statement with examples. [3]
OR
Describe any two outcomes of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy accommodates social diversities:
(i) Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of social tensions becoming explosive or violent.
(ii) No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve a mechanism to negotiate these differences.
(iii) Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.
(iv) Example: Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among its ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions
OR
(i) Promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) Enhances the dignity of the individual.
(iii) Improves the quality of decision-making.
(iv) Provides a method to resolve conflicts.
(iv) Allows room to correct mistakes.
Question 29.
A Graph given below shows the shares of employment in the three sectors of the economy. Analyze the data provided and answer the following questions. [3]
(i) What was the share of the primary sector in employment in the year 1970-71?
Answer:
More than approximately 70%
(ii) What was the share of primary sector in employment in the year 2009-10?
Answer:
55%
(iii) Which sector has the lowest share in the employment in 2009-10?
Answer:
Secondary sector
Section – D (5 ×4=20 Marks)
Long Answer-Based Questions
Question 30.
Print revolution was not just a development, a new way of producing books; it transformed the lives of people. [5]
Examine the impact of the Print Revolution in Europe during 15th and 16th century.
OR
“Print not only stimulated the publication of conflicting opinions amongst communities, but it also connected communities and people in different parts of India.” Examine the statement.
Answer:
Impact of the Print Revolution in Europe during the 15th and 16th centuries:
(i) Printing reduced the cost of books.
(ii) The time and labour required to produce each of the books came down, multiple copies could be produced with greater ease.
(iii) Books flooded the market, reaching out to an ever-growing readership.
(iv) Publishers started publishing popular ballad folk tales with beautiful pictures and illustrations.
(v) Knowledge was transferred orally.
(vi) Print created the possibility of the wide circulation of ideas and introduced a new world of debate and discussion.
(vii) Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate their ideas. For example, Martin Luther was a German monk, priest, professor and Church Reformer. He challenged the Church to debate his ideas.
(viii) This led to division within the Church and the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
(ix) Print and popular religious literature stimulated many distinctive individual interpretations of faith even among little-educated working people.
(x) In the sixteenth century, Menocchio, a miller in Italy, reinterpreted the message of the Bible and formulated a view of God and Creation that enraged the Roman Catholic Church.
OR
(i) Religious texts, reached a wide circle of people encouraging discussions, debates and controversies within and among different religions.
(ii) Newspapers conveyed news from one place to other creating pan-Indian identities.
(iii) Spread of ideas through printed texts and newspapers led to widespread participation of Indians.
(iv) Print propagated against social evils like sati practice, child marriage and the purdah system.
(v) Emergence of many social reforms and reform movements.
(vi) New ideas emerged through the clashes of opinions.
Question 31.
“The 33 per cent of area should be under forest.” Justify the statement highlighting the advantages of forests. [5]
OR
“The conservation projects are now focussing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its components.” Justify with proper examples.
Answer:
The 33 per cent of area should be under forests because of the following reasons:
(i) They reduce flooding and improve water quality by slowing the rate at which rainfall runs off and flows into rivers.
(ii) They provide fallen leaves to feed the soil and aquatic organisms.
(iii) They play an important role in checking soil erosion by holding the soil firmly to the ground.
(iv) Forests increase the level of groundwater by showing the amount of rainfall runoff that percolates into the soil and replenishes our main source of drinking water.
(v) Forests improve air quality, especially in summer, by lowering temperatures and filtering dust. These also absorb various gases
like ozone, carbon, monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, airborne ammonia and heavy metals and release oxygen.
OR
The conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its components. Following examples proves the above given statement:
(i) In the 1960s and 1970s conservation approach was specific. On the basis of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, various projects were implemented.
(ii) These projects were implemented to protect various species of animals including tigers, rhinoceros, crocodile, etc.
(iii) But now conservation projects are focusing on biodiversity i.e. whole gamut of species along with their habitat in a specific climatic region
and not just on few components Also the conservation measure are now intensified.
(iv) Wildlife Act was revised in 1980s and 1986 to include various insects like butterflies and plants in the conservation planning.
(v) Along with national parks, wildlife sanctuary, biosphere reserves are now designed and promoted in order to protect species along with
natural habitat and whole complex of ecological webs.
(vi) Participation of community as well as local people now gave a new dimension to conservation of planning.
Question 32.
Describe the elements of Belgium model for accommodation. [5]
OR
How did the idea of power-sharing emerge? Explain different forms that have common arrangements of power-sharing.
Answer:
Belgium model for the accommodation of diversities:
(i) Though the Dutch were in majority in the countiy, the French and Dutch speaking population was given equal representation in the Central government.
(ii) Belgium was declared as a Federal state and thus State government were given important powers.
(iii) The state government did not act a subordinate to the Central government.
(iv) The capital city of Brussels has a separate government. Through the French speaking population was in majority in the city, they accepted equal representation in Brussels.
(v) This was because the Dutch speaking people has accepted equal representation in the Central government in spite of being in majority.
(vi) Community government was elected by Dutch, French and Germans peaking people and looked after educational, language and educational issues.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
OR
Idea of power-sharing emerged:
The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power.
Different forms having common arrangements of Power-Sharing:
(i) Power is shared among different organs of government such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(ii) Powers can be shared among governments at different levels i.e., at national and provincial or regional levels.
(iii) Power shared among different social groups such as religious and linguistic groups.
Power-sharing arrangements in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence thosein power.
Question 33.
“Workers are exploited in Unorganised sector”.
Do you agree with the statement? Explain reasons in support of your answer. [5]
OR
Compare the economic activities of the private sector with that of public sector.
Answer:
Unorganized Sector: Unorganized sector is a sector which has small and scattered units largely outside the control of the government.
Yes, workers are exploited in the unorganized sector.
Reasons are as follows :
(i) There are no rules and regulations followed.
(ii) Jobs are low paid and often not regular.
(iii) No provision of overtime is there and no paid holidays or leave is given.
(iv) Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave without reason .
(v) Some kind of work is seasonal in nature and temporary workers are employed. They become unemployed after the season is over.
(vi) No other facilities like provident fund, gratuity or sick leave are given .
(vii) Working conditions are often poor. No allowances are given.
(viii) No medical benefit is given.
OR
(i) The government has ownership on most of the assets in the public sector and it provides all the services. Railways and post and telegraph
are examples of the public sector. The primary motive of the public sector is not earning profits rather making public welfare.
(ii) Ownership of assets and delivery of services rests in the hands of private individuals or companies in the private sector. Companies such as Tata Iron and Steel Company and Reliance Industries are examples of the private sector. Activities of the private sector are guided with the ultimate objective of earning profits.
(iii) There are several things required by the society which the private sector cannot provide at reasonable cost, so these are provided by the public sector; for example- construction of bridges, roads, railways, harbours, generation of electricity, provision of irrigation facilities,
etc.
(iv) There are certain activities which the public sector is required to support. The private sector may not perform production or
conduct business without the support of the government.
(v) There are many activities which are the primary responsibility of the government. It is required that the government makes expenses.
Section – E (4×3=12 Marks)
Case-Based Questions
Question 34.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life. Look around you and you would easily be able to identify several transactions involving money in any single day. Can you make a list of these? In many of these transactions, goods are being bought and sold with the use of money. In some of these transactions, services are being exchanged with money. For some, there might not be any actual transfer of money taking place now but a promise to pay money later.
Have you ever wondered why transactions are made in money? The reason is simple. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want. Thus everyone prefers to receive payments in money and then exchange the money for things that they want. Take the case of a shoe manufacturer. He wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. The shoe manufacturer will first exchange shoes that he has produced for money, and then exchange the money for wheat. Imagine how much more difficult it would be if the shoe manufacturer had to directly exchange shoes for wheat without the use of money. He would have to look for a wheat growing farmer who not only wants to sell wheat but also wants to buy the shoes in exchange. That is, both parties have to agree to sell and buy each others commodities. This is known as double coincidence of wants. What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.
In contrast, in an economy where money is in use, money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. It is no longer necessary for the shoe manufacturer to look for a farmer who will buy his shoes and at the same time sell him wheat. All he has to do is find a buyer for his shoes. Once he has exchanged his shoes for money, he can purchase wheat or any other commodity in the market. Since money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process, it is called a medium of exchange.
34.1 Give reason why transactions are made in money ? [1]
Answer:
The reason why transactions are made in money is very simple. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity
or service that he or she might want. Thus everyone prefers to receive payments in money and then exchange the money for things they want.
34.2 What do you mean by double coincidence of wants ? [1]
Answer:
When the seller and buyer or both parties agree to sell and buy each others commodities, it is called double coincidence of wants. What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.
34.3 How would the shoe manufacturer had directly exchanged shoes for wheat without the use of money ? [2]
Answer:
If the shoe manufacturer had to directly exchange shoes for without the use of money, he would have to look for a wheat growing farmer who not only wants to sell wheat but also wants to buy the shoes in exchange. That is both parties have to agree to sell and buy each others commodities.
Question 35.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows : [4]
Do democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens? It will be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. We have seen in the earlier chapters how democracies accommodate various social divisions.
We saw in the first chapter how Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations. Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups.
But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes. But the example of Sri Lanka reminds us that a democracy must fulfil two conditions in order to achieve this outcome:
- It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent the general view. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
- It is also necessary that rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group, etc. Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of every election, different persons and groups may and can form a majority. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. If someone is barred from being in majority on the basis of birth, then the democratic rule ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.
35.1 Can any society fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups? If not, then what should be done? [1]
Answer:
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences.
35.2 From the example of Sri Lanka, how would you judge that rule by majority opinion is not simple? [1]
Answer:
It is necessary to understand that Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion as in case of Sri Lanka. The majority always needs to work with minority so that governments function to represent the general view. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
35.3 What does rule by majority mean? [2]
Answer:
Rule by majority means that in case of every decision or in case of every election, different persons and groups may and can form a majority. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. If someone is barred from being in majority on the basis of birth, then the democratic rule ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.
Question 36.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows: [4]
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state’s power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
36.1 What was the purpose behind convening the Congress of Vienna in 1815? [1]
Answer:
The purpose behind conveying the Congress of Vienna in 1815 was to restore conservative regime in Europe.
36.2 What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? [1]
Answer:
The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon.
36.3 How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? [2]
Answer:
The Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe by laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe.
Section – F (2+3=5 Marks)
Map Skill-Based Question
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress Session was held at this place in 1927.
(B) The place where the movement of Indigo Planters started.
Answer:
(A) Madras
(B) Champaran district of Bihar
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) Software technology parks in UP.
(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu
(iii) Ramagundam thermal power station.
(iv) Coal mine in the state of Jharkhand
Answer:
(i) Software technology parks in UP – Noida
(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu Kalpakkam
(iii) Ramagundam thermal power station.
(iv) Coal mine in the state of Jharkhand Bokaro