Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology with Solutions and marking scheme Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Psychology Set 8 with Solutions
Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- All questions are compulsory except where internal choice has been given.
- Question Nos. 1 -15 in Section A carry 1 mark each. You are expected to answer them as directed.
- Question Nos. 16-21 in Section B are very short answer type-I questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
- Question Nos. 22-24 in Section C are short answer type-II questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Question Nos. 25 – 28 in Section D are long answer type questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
- Question Nos. 29-30 in Section E are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.
- Question Nos. 31 – 34 in Section F are based on two cases given. Answer to each one-mark question should not exceed 20 words. Answer to each two-mark question should not exceed 30 words.
Section-A
Question 1.
Sonali was questioned by her senior when her performance started to decline. She admitted that she was not eating regularly and her sleep was disturbed. Moreover, she could not concentrate on work and felt overburdened. Identify the effects of stress being indicated here. i. Emotional ii. Behavioural iii. Cognitive iv. Physiological [1]
(A) i and ii
(B) ii and iii
(C) iii and iv
(D) i and iv
Answer:
(B) ii and iii
Explanation:
Behavioural and cognitive effects.
Question 2.
According to teacher, students who have a combination of high ability, high creativity, and high commitment are said to be ………………. [1]
(A) creative
(B) intelligent
(C) gifted
(D) capable
Answer:
(C) gifted
Explanation:
Any kid who is born with a high level of overall mental capacity or outstanding skill in a specific domain of activity or knowledge is referred to as a gifted youngster.
Question 3.
Samina keeps organising her cupboard whole day. Even the thought of somebody messing it keeps her distracted in class and makes her anxious. Such symptoms are typical of which disorder? [1]
(A) Obsessive Compulsive disorder
(B) Depressive disorder
(C) Anxiety disorder.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(A) Obsessive Compulsive disorder
Explanation:
OCD is characterised by obsessions and compulsions. This includes being preoccupied with certain thoughts (obsessions) that are viewed by the person to be embarrassing or shameful and being unable to check the impulse to repeatedly carry out certain acts (compulsions) like checking, washing, counting, etc. Here, Samina also has an obsession with organising her cupboard and keeping it that way.
Question 4.
While passing through the streets on her way to the office everyday, Jaya feels people are spying on her and police is chasing her. Identify the type of delusion Jaya is experiencing. [1]
(A) Persecution
(B) Control
(C) Reference
(D) Grandeur
Answer:
(A) Persecution
Explanation:
People suffering from this sort of delusional condition feel that someone or something is mistreating, spying on, or attempting to harm them (or someone close to them). People suffering from this sort of delusional condition may make frequent complaints to legal authorities.
Question 5.
Enhancement of people’s self-concept is possible by creating an atmosphere of ……………. [1]
(A) conditional positive regard
(B) unconditional positive regard
(C) unconditional and biased regard
(D) identity crisis
Answer:
(B) unconditional positive regard
Explanation:
Enhancement of people’s self-concept is possible by creating an environment of unconditional positive regard.
Question 6.
Assertion (A): After visualising one must set oneself a realistic goal, as it helps build confidence.
Reason (R): It is easier to visualise if one’s mind is quiet, body is relaxed and eyes are closed. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation:
Realistic goals are set and defined before visualising and not after visualising.
Question 7.
Which of these is not a form of social support? [1]
(A) Informational
(B) Emotional
(C) Tangible
(D) Positive thinking
Answer:
(D) Positive thinking
Explanation:
Positive thinking is a factor that facilitates positive health but is not a form of social support.
Question 8.
Reebika is experiencing stress due to noisy surroundings community quarrelsome electricity and water shortages. These sources of stress are: [1]
(A) Life events
(B) Hassles
(C) Traumatic events
(D) Environmental events
Answer:
(B) Hassles
Explanation:
Hassles are the personal stresses we endure as individuals, due to the happenings in our daily life, such as noisy surroundings, commuting, quarrelsome neighbours, electricity and water shortage, traffic snarls and so on.
Question 9.
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory: [1]
(A) It was developed by Hathway and McKinley
(B) Effective in identifying varieties of psychopathology
(C) The revised type is called MMPT-2
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above
Explanation:
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) was developed by McKinley and Hathway for psychiatric diagnosis but later applied to a variety of psychopathologies, such as hypochondriasis, depression, hysteria, masculinity, and femininity. This test is based on true/false questions. Its revised version is MMPI-2.
Question 10.
Nishant feels very strongly that everyone should love him and he should be selected to represent the school in all competitions. When this does not happen, he feels miserable and is unable to concentrate which form of therapy would be most suitable for him to overcome this problem? [1]
(A) Cognitive therapy
(B) Psychodynamic therapy
(C) Behavioural therapy
(D) Biomedical
OR
Dipa Karmakar is the first Indian gymnast to qualify for the Rio Olympics 2016. According to psychologists, Dipa would be high on …………….. intelligence.
(A) Spatial
(B) Interpersonal
(C) Naturalistic
(D) Bodily-kinesthetic
Answer:
(D) Bodily-kinesthetic
Explanation:
Possessing the ability to move items and employ a range of physical abilities is known as bodily-kinesthetic intelligence. This intelligence also includes timing skills and the integration of the mind and body to perfect abilities. The body kinesthetic intelligence of athletes and dancers is highly developed.
Question 11.
Which of these is not a type of assessment method? [1]
(A) Case Study
(B) Observation
(C) Self-Report
(D) On-the-job training
Answer:
(D) On-the-job training
Explanation:
On-the-job training is a technique of imparting skill and is not an assessment method.
Question 12.
Who defined stress as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand”? [1]
(A) Hans Selye
(B) Lazarus
(C) Holmes and Rahe
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) Hans Selye
Explanation:
Hans Selye is titled “The Father of Modern Stress Research” for his psychological study on stress and its effects. He defined stress as “the nonspecific response of the body to any demand”.
Question 13.
Assertion (A): Primary appraisal refers to the assessment of one’s coping abilities, resources and whether they will be sufficient to meet the harm, threat or challenges of the event
Reason (R): the resources may be mental, physical, personal or social. [1]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Answer:
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation:
Secondary appraisal refers to that assessment of one’s coping abilities resources and whether they will be sufficient to meet the harm, threat or challenge of the event. Primary appraisal refers to the perception of a new or changing environment as positive, neutral or negative in its consequences.
Question 14.
In 1957, Leon Festinger published his theory of ……………… [1]
(A) Balance
(B) Cognitive dissonance
(C) Attribution
(D) None of the above.
Answer:
(D) None of the above.
Explanation:
Leon Festinger initially proposed the cognitive dissonance hypothesis in 1957 to clarify the connections between a person’s motivation, perceptions, and cognitions (Festinger, 1962).
Question 15.
Identify the Determinants of Conformity. [1]
(A) Nature of the task
(B) Social influence
(C) The company of like-minded people
(D) None of these
Answer:
(A) Nature of the task
Explanation:
Nature of the task is one of the determinants of conformity
Section-B
Question 16.
What is emotional intelligence?
OR
Explain two-factor theory of intelligence. [2]
Answer:
The abilities that support appropriate emotion identification, expression, and control are referred to as emotional intelligence capabilities. Emotional intelligence was described by Salovey and Mayer as “the capacity to monitor one’s own and other people’s emotions, to distinguish between them, and to use the information to inform one’s thinking and actions”. The capacity for precise and effective emotional information processing is referred to as emotional intelligence.
OR.
Spearman hypothesized that intelligence is composed of two components: the “g” factor and the “s” factor. The “g” factor is related to general ability, whereas the “s” factor is related to particular ability. The “g” factor indicates a person’s ability to do broad mental ability tasks, whereas the “s” factor is in charge of identifying a person’s special talents. According to psychologists, the person’s special talents might include drawing interference, coding abilities, mathematical abilities, and so on.
Question 17.
What do you understand about Type-C personality? [2]
Answer:
Morris has suggested a Type C personality by extending the views of Rosenman and Freidman. Type C personality is characterised by the individuals who are cooperative, unassertive and are patient. Individuals suppress their negative emotions and show compliance to authority.
Question 18.
State any four significant features of attitudes. [2]
Answer:
The four features of attitude are:
- Valence: Whether an attitude is good or negative toward the attitude object is indicated by its value. For instance, a 5-point scale with the values 1 (Very Bad), 2 (Bad), 3, 4, and 5 (Good) is used to describe one’s view regarding nuclear research.
- Extremeness: The extremeness of an attitude reveals whether it is favorable or negative. With regard to the nuclear research example from earlier, a rating of 1 is just as severe as a rating of 5 because their valences are in the opposite directions. Less extreme ratings are 2 and 4.
- Simplicity or Complexity: It speaks to how many different attitudes make up the overall attitude. A person’s attitude is simple if they have few attitudes, and complicated if they have many attitudes. For instance, a simple attitude toward the student’s instructor and a complicated attitude with his parent.
- Centrality: This speaks to a certain attitude’s function within the system of attitudes. The other attitudes in the system would be much more influenced by an attitude with more centrality than by an attitude with less central (or peripheral) impact.
Question 19.
Analyse the chief benefit to the client in both behavioural and humanistic therapies. [2]
Answer:
Behaviour therapies: The aim is to change faulty behaviour and cognitions to adaptive ones. The principles of these techniques are to reduce the arousal level of the client, alter behaviour through classical conditioning or operant conditioning with different contingencies of reinforcements, as well as to use vicarious learning procedures, if necessary. It includes techniques like systematic desensitization, positive and negative conditioning, vicarious conditioning, flooding, etc.
Humanistic therapies: Humanistic-existential therapy encourages the client to seek personal growth i.e., increasing understanding of oneself and one’s aspirations, emotions and motives and actualizing the potential. It includes and is based on the theories given by Maslow and Roger.
Question 20.
If you have heard more positive things about a group, then your social schema about the whole group will be more positive and negative if you have heard negative information about that group i.e., negative stereotype. Define the two types of schemas. [2]
Answer:
Schemas that function in the form of categories are called prototypes which are the entire set of features or qualities that help us to define an object completely. In social cognition, category-based schemas that are related to groups of people are called stereotypes.
Question 21.
What is Proximity? [2]
Answer:
Repeated interactions with the same set of individuals give us a chance to know them and their interests and attitudes. This is called Proximity.
Section-C
Question 22.
When people break the norms of their society, they are called deviant and ‘mentally ill’ and people may start behaving and living up to these labels. Explain the mental disorders from a socio-cultural perspective. [3]
OR
Resham has been overwhelmed by the quantum of work in her office. She has been advised some stress management techniques by her counsellor. What are the two techniques that you think would be helpful for her to manage stress?
Answer:
According to the Sociocultural model, abnormal behaviour is best understood in light of the social and cultural forces that influence an individual.
(i) Socio-cultural factors such as war and violence, group prejudice and discrimination, economic and employment problems etc and rapid social change, put stress on most of us and can lead to psychological problems in some individuals.
(ii) Certain family structures are likely to produce abnormal functioning in members e.g., families which are over involved with each other have difficulty in becoming independent in life. Social and professional relationships also play an important role.
(iii) People who are isolated and lack societal support are likely to become more depressed and remain depressed longer than those who have good friendship.
(iv) Societal labels and roles assigned to troubled people also cause abnormal functioning.
OR
A brief description of any two of the following stress management techniques:
- Relaxation Techniques
- Meditation Procedures
- Biofeedback
- Creative Visualisation
- Cognitive Behavioural Techniques
- Exercise
Question 23.
What is Interview? Explain two types of interviews. [3]
Answer:
Interview is a commonly used method for assessing personality. This involve stalking to the person being assessed and asking specific questions.
(a) Diagnostic interviewing generally involves in-depth interviewing which seeks to go beyond the replies given by the person. Interviews may be structured or unstructured depending on the purpose or goals of assessment.
(b) A structured interview is a type of interview in which the interviewer asks a particular set of predetermined questions, while the unstructured interview is a type of interview in which the interviewer asks questions that are not prepared in advance.
Question 24.
What do you mean by transference neurosis? Describe its types. [3]
Answer:
The client expresses his/her frustrations, anger, fear and depression that had been suppressed during the early childhood years. The therapist acts as the substitute for an authority figure and this stage is called transference neurosis. It is of two types:
I. Positive transference: When the client idolises or falls in love with the therapist and seeks the therapist’s approval, positive transference takes place.
II. Negative transference: When the client has feelings of hostility, anger and resentment towards the therapist negative transference occurs.
Section-D
Question 25.
Individuals differ in the coping strategies that they use to deal with stressful situations. Justify this statement highlighting various coping strategies. [4]
Answer:
Individuals differ in the coping strategies they use to cope with the same stressful situation as they use different coping strategies as given by Endler & Parker
- Task-Oriented Strategy: This involves obtaining information about the stressful situation and about alternative courses of action and their probable outcome; it also involves deciding priorities and acting so as to deal directly with the stressful situation.
- Emotion-oriented Strategy: This can involve efforts to maintain hope and to control one’s emotions; it can also involve venting feelings of anger and frustration
- Avoidance-oriented Strategy: This involves denying or minimising the seriousness of the situation; it also involves conscious suppression of stressful thoughts and their replacement by self-protective thoughts. Examples of this are watching TV, phoning a friend, or trying to be with other people
- Examples (carry weightage)
Question 26.
The form of Gestalt therapy practiced today utilises ideas, data and interventions from multiple sources, as well as some of the original techniques known to be ‘Gestalt therapy techniques.’ List down the uses and benefits, relationships problems and other potential benefits of Gestalt therapy. [4]
Answer:
Uses and Benefits: There are a variety of conditions that Gestalt therapy may be used to treat, including: Anxiety, Depression, Low self-efficacy, Low selfesteem. Relationship problems: Gestalt therapy can also be useful for helping people gain greater self awareness and a greater ability to live in the present moment. Other potential benefits may include: An improved sense of self-control
- Better ability to monitor and regulate mental states
- Better awareness of your needs
- Better tolerance for negative emotions
- Improved communication skills
Question 27.
Explain the competencies of the Indian notion of intelligence. [4]
Answer:
Competencies of Indian Notion of Intelligence:
(a) Cognitive ability: Perceptiveness in context, comprehension, discrimination, effective communication, and problem-solving.
(b) Social competence: Adherence to social norms, dedication to seniors, children, and the less fortunate, care for others, and appreciation of different viewpoints.
(c) Emotional competence: Self-control and emotional self-monitoring, honesty, courtesy, decent manners, and self-evaluation.
(d) Entrepreneurial competence: Goal-oriented behaviors, dedication, perseverance, patience, hard effort, and vigilance.
Question 28.
Yash is a 15-year-old teenager. His parents are always talking behind the back of their relatives and keep preconceived opinions or attitudes towards them during any family gathering. Yash feels unusual when he becomes a part of it. Explain the concept of prejudice by highlighting its three sources which leads to its development. [4]
OR
A group of youngsters, working in a private firm are going through psychological distress due to the work load. Identify and explain the four factors which contribute to treatment of psychological distress.
Answer:
Prejudices refer to preconceived opinions or attitudes held by members of one group towards another. The word literally means “pre-judgement”, that is, an opinion formed in advance of any familiarity with the subject, before considering any available evidence. Here are the three sources that lead to the development of prejudices.
Learning: Prejudices can also be learned through association, reward and punishment, observing others, group or cultural norms and exposure to information that encourages prejudice. The family, reference groups, personal experiences and the media may play a role in the learning of prejudices. People who learn prejudiced attitudes may develop a “prejudiced personality”, and show low adjusting capacity, anxiety, and feelings of hostility against the outgroup.
A strong social identity and ingroup bias: Individuals who have a strong sense of social identity and have a very positive attitude towards their own group boost this attitude by holding negative attitudes towards other groups. These are shown as prejudices.
Scapegoating: In Scapegoating the majority group places the blame on a minority outgroup for its own social, economic or political problems.
OR
Treatment of psychological distress
1. Techniques adopted by the therapist and the implementation of the same.
2. The therapeutic alliance.
3. Unburdening of the emotional problems. (catharsis)
4. Non-specific factors attributable to the client/patient. (patient–variables) and attributable to the therapist (therapist–variables)
OR
any relevant example i.e., relaxation procedure and cognitive restructuring
Section-E
Question 29.
State three conditions which facilitate group formation. [6]
OR
Describe any two elements of group structure.
Answer:
Basic to group formation is some contact and some form of interaction between people. This interaction is facilitated by the following conditions:
(1) Proximity: Repeated interactions with the same set of individuals give us a chance to know them, and their interests and attitudes. Common interests, attitudes, and background are important determinants of your liking for your group members.
(2) Similarity: Being exposed to someone over a period of time makes us assess our similarities and paves the way for formation of groups. The reason given by psychologists for group formation between similar people or liking between similar people is when two people are similar, there is consistency and they start liking each other. For example, you like playing football and another person in your class also loves playing football; there is a matching of your interests. There are higher chances that you may become a group. Another explanation given by psychologists is that when we meet similar people, they reinforce and validate our opinions and values, we feel we are right and thus we start liking them.
Common motives and goals: When people have common motives or goals they get together and form a group which may facilitate their goal attainment. Suppose you want to teach children in a slum area who are unable to go to school. You cannot do this alone because you have your own studies and homework. You, therefore, form a group of like minded friends and start teaching these children. So, you have been able to achieve what you could not have done alone.
OR
The two important elements of group structure are Roles and Norms:
(a) Roles
(b) Norms
Roles: Roles are socially defined expectations that individuals in a given situation are expected to fulfil. Roles refer to the typical behaviour that depicts a person in a given social context. In a role of a son or a daughter there are certain role expectations when in that role. An example is, as a daughter or a son, you are expected to respect elders, listen to them, and be responsible towards your studies.
Norms: Norms are expected standards of behaviour and beliefs established, agreed upon, and enforced by group members. They may be considered as a group’s “unspoken rules”. In your family, there are norms that guide the behaviour of family members. These norms represent shared ways of viewing the world.
Question 30.
Explain the term dissociation. Discuss and its various forms [6]
OR
Explain the diathesis stress model of abnormal behaviour giving examples from daily life.
Answer:
Dissociation: Severance of the connection between ideas and emotions. Involves feelings of unreality, estrangement, depersonalisation and sometimes a loss or shift of identity. Forms of dissociative disorders are:
(i) Dissociative amnesia
(ii) Dissociative fugue
(iii) Dissociative identity disorder
(iv) Depersonalisation
Dissociative amnesia: Extensive but selective memory loss with no known organic cause. Dissociative fugue: There is an assumption of new identity while no memory of the previous identity that can result in unexpected travel away from home and workplace.
Dissociative Identity Disorder: Marked by multiple personalities of an individual. It is associated with traumatic childhood experiences.
Depersonalization: Person experiences a detachment from the self and the reality. There is a change of self-perception.
OR
Diathesis stress model: This model states that psychological disorders develop when a diathesis (biological aberration to the disorder) is set off by a stressful situation.
This model has three components:
(i) Presence of some biological aberration which may be inherited.
(ii) Diathesis may carry predisposition or vulnerability to develop a psychological disorder.
(iii) Presence of pathogenic stressors i.e. factors that may lead to psychopathology.
One of the example can be of a family where the mother is suffering from schizophrenia and so the daughter has the vulnerability to it. Eventually, the stressor of her mother’s death due to suicide resulted in her also developing schizophrenia.
Section-F
Read the case and answer the questions that follow.
Vikas and Anil have their final examinations in a month and both of them are worried and stressed about their performance in this exam. They try to prepare thoroughly but still feeling stressed. Vikas, on one hand, is stressed but has a positive attitude towards exams and knows that he has prepared enough. Anil, on the other hand, is so stressed that he can’t sleep properly at night, is not eating right and constantly keeps on thinking about the results of this examination. He is also facing a lot of issues while preparing for the exams. In the end, on the day of the examination, Vikas performs excellently and feels very confident about the result, whereas Anil could not do as well because he was so stressed.
Question 31.
Name the type of stress faced by Vikas and Anil respectively [1]
Answer:
Vikas faced Eustress whereas Anil was going through Distress.
Question 32.
What is stress? [2]
Answer:
Stress can be defined as the pattern of responses an organism makes to a stimulus event that disturbs the equilibrium and exceeds a person’s ability to cope.
Read the case and answer the questions that follow.
The symptoms of schizophrenia can be grouped into three categories, viz. Positive symptoms (i.e. excesses of thought, emotion, and behaviour), negative symptoms (i.e. deficits of thought, emotion, and behaviour), and psychomotor symptoms. Positive symptoms are ‘pathological excesses’ or ‘bizarre additions’ to a person’s behaviour. Delusions, disorganised thinking and speech, heightened perception and hallucinations, and inappropriate effects are the ones most often found in schizophrenia. Many people with schizophrenia develop delusions. A delusion is a false belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. It is not affected by rational argument and has no basis in reality.
Question 33.
What are delusions? [1]
Answer:
A delusion is a false belief that is firmly held on inadequate grounds. It is not affected by rational argument and has no basis in reality.
Question 34.
What do you mean by negative symptoms of schizophrenia? [2]
Answer:
Negative symptoms are ‘pathological deficits’ that occur in the individual that has schizophrenia. The symptoms include poverty of speech (alogia), blunted or flat affect, loss of volition, and social withdrawal.