Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 3 with Solutions
Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
- Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
- Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
- Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
- Section C – contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
- Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions. carrying marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words
- Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
- Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
- There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
- In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section – A (20×1=20 Marks)
Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option: [1]
(i) He was an Italian statesman
(ii) He spoke French much better than Italian
(iii) He was a tactful diplomat
(iv) He belonged to a Royal family
Options:
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer:
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Explanation: Cavour was the Chief Minister of Sardinia-Piedmont. He was an Italian statesman but he did not belong to a Royal family. He was born in Turin during Napoleonic rule, family which had acquired estates during the French occupation.
Question 2.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows: [1]
Which of the following events was related to this image of Gandhi?
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Kheda Satyagraha
(C) Dandi March
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Dandi March
Explanation: Gandhiji and his 80 followers marched 241 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to coastal town of Dandi (Gujarat) where they broke the government law by gathering natural salt found on the sea shore, and boiling seawater to produce salt.
Question 3.
There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this? [1]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
Answer:
(C) M. K. Gandhi
Explanation: According to Gandhiji, the greedy and selfish individuals, and exploitative nature of modem technology are the root cause for resource depletion at the global level.
Question 4.
Match the correct column: [1]
Column A | Column B | ||
(i) | Union List | (a) | Education |
(ii) | State List | (b) | Computer Software |
(iii) | Concurrent List | (c) | Foreign Affairs |
(iv) | Residuary Subjects | (d) | Agriculture |
Options:
(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(B) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
Answer:
(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
Explanation:
(i) Foreign Affairs is included in Union List because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
(ii) Agriculture is included in State List as states are entirely competent to enact laws on agriculture.
(iii) Education is included in Concurrent List as the Indian Constitution has provisions to ensure that the state provides education to all its citizens. Education being a concurrent list subject enables the Central Government to legislate it in the manner suited to it.
(iv) Computer Software is included in the Residuary Subjects as it was not present at the time when the Constitution was being written. Union Government has the powers to make laws regarding this subject.
Question 5.
When was Project Tiger launched? [1]
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1974
(D) 1975
Answer:
(B) 1973
Explanation: Project Tiger has been the largest species conservation initiative of its kind in the world.
Question 6.
Find the incorrect option from the following: [1]
(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.
(B) It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(C) It has a population of a little over one crore.
(D) The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex.
Answer:
(A) Belgium is a big country in North America.
Explanation: Belgium is a smaller than Haryana. In Europe it shares borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
Question 7.
At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important economic activity? [1]
(A) Primary
(C) Tertiary
(B) Secondary
(D) Quaternary
Answer:
(A) Primary
Explanation: At initial stages of development, primary sector was the most important in economic activity because it is the sector in which raw material is processed into valuable finished product. Industries that manufacture finished products from primary material are called manufacturing industries and they are also called backbone of our country.
Question 8.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
Laxmi, owning about three hectares of unirrigated land is dependent only on rain and growing crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field throughout the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in actual fact their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed.
(A) Underemployment
(B) Disguised unemployment
(C) Seasonal unemployment
(D) Both (A) and (B).
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B).
Question 9.
The textile industry is primarily concerned with the design, production and distribution of yam, cloth and clothing. [1]
Identify the contribution of the textile industry to India’s GDP from the options given below.
(A) 20%
(B) 15%
(C) 4%
(D) 10%
Answer:
(C) 4%
Question 10.
Study the pie chart showing production of Manganese state-wise share in per cent, 2016-17. Answer the question that follows: [1]
Which of the following events was related to this image of Gandhi?
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Kheda Satyagraha
(C) Dandi March
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Dandi March
Question 11.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): Folklores give a picture of traditional culture, it helps in discovering a national identity and restoring a sense of pride in one’s past.
Reason (R): Nationalism spreads when people discover some unity that binds them together.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 12.
Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’? [1]
(A) French Revolution
(B) Russian Revolution
(C) Glorious Revolution
(D) The Revolution of the liberals
Answer:
(A) French Revolution
Explanation: Till 1789, France was a territorial state under the rule of an absolute monarch and through French Revolution the idea of nationalism brightened up the motivated people to own the country
Question 13.
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer: [1]
Assertion (A): Tidal energy is a renewable source of energy.
Reason (R): Tidal energy is produced by the surge of ocean waters during the rise and fall of tides.
(A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(D) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
Answer:
(A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
Explanation: Tidal energy is a renewable energy as it powered by the natural rise and fall of ocean tides and currents.
Question 14.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): Brussels has a Separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.
Reason (R): In Brussels French-Speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: The French-speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the central government.
Question 15.
Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Governments,
such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list.
(A) Concurrent List
(B) Union List
(C) State List
(D) Government ist
Answer:
(A) Concurrent List
Explanation; The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the Concurrent List is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.
Question 16.
Rakesh works in an automobile unit in Gurugram. But he does not get any facility like health insurance, medical leave, provident fund, gratuity, etc. He is working in : [1]
(A) Public sector
(B) Organised sector
(C) Private sector
(D) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(D) Unorganised sector
Explanation: Rakesh works in an unorganised sector wherein his employment is not secure, he is generally low paid and is not regularly paid. His employers do not make provision for overtime payment, paid leaves or holidays, medical facilities, gratuity and provident fund
Question 17.
Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options: [1]
This crop is known as the golden fibre. It grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year. A high temperature is required during the time of its growth. West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya are the major producer of this crop. It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yam, carpets and other artefacts. Due to its high cost, it is losing market to synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the nylon.
(A) Jute
(B) Cotton
(C) Rubber
(D) Silk
Answer:
(A) Jute
Question 18.
Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in which place in India? [1]
(A) Tripura
(B) Krishna and Godavari Delta
(C) Maharashtra
(D) All of the Above
Answer:
(D) All of the Above
Question 19.
Name the industry which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, i.e. from raw material to the highest value added products. [1]
(A) Agriculture industry
(B) Textile industry
(C) Light industry
(D) Heavy industry
Answer:
(B) Textile industry
Explanation: The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and completein the value chain.
Question 20.
‘Democratic governments have a much better record than any non-democratic regime.’ [1]
Instead of the above given statement, find the incorrect option regarding democracy from the following:
(A) Democracy enhances the dignity of the individual.
(B) It provides a method to resolve conflicts.
(C) Improves the quality of decision-making.
(D) Allows room to make more mistakes.
Answer:
(D) Allows room to make more mistakes.
Explanation: In Democracy there is a space for public discussion on the mistakes committed. As in a democracy, the main power is with the citizens so if they make a wrong choice in choosing the representative then it can be changed by voting others and the mistake would be corrected.
Section – B (2×4=8 Marks)
Very Short Answer Questions
Question 21.
Study the map of Italy thoroughly and tell what it depicts. [2]
Answer:
The map shows the year in which different regions become part of a unified Italy. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
Question 22.
Compacted substances that comprise the earth’s crust are called rocks. [2]
Analyse the above statement and write any two characteristics of rocks.
Answer:
Characteristics of rock:
(i) Rocks are formed due to chemical compositions and erosion that takes place on the earth.
(ii) Rocks are the naturally formed aggregate of mineral particles.
(iii) It is the minerals that impart their texture, colour, shape, hardness or softness to rocks.
Question 23.
Define globalization and name one factor which plays a major role in the process of rapid integration of the countries. [2]
OR
‘Multinational corporations play a key role in the process of globalisation1. Do you agree with the statement? Based on which factors do MNCs select the regions for setting up offices?
Answer:
Globalisation means integrating or interconnecting the economy of a country with the economies of ther countries under conditions of free flow of trade, services, technology, capital and movement of people across international borders.
MNCs play a major role in the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
Yes, I agree with the statement.
MNCs choose regions where they get cheap labour and resources to minimise the cost of production and earn greater profits.
Question 24.
Justify money as a medium of exchange. [2]
Answer:
Money is a medium of exchange:
(i) Allows people and businesses to obtain what they need to live and thrive.
(ii) It is also accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorized by the Governments of various countries.
Section – C (3×5=15 Marks)
Short Answer – Based Questions
Question 25.
Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the late eighteenth century. [3]
OR
‘Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) Food could now be imported into England.
(ii) Demand for food grains increased as urban centers expanded.
(iii) Due to pressure from land groups, the government restricted import of corn by enacting the Corn Laws.
OR
(i) Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they travelled.
(ii) It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to become Spaghetti.
(iii) Some people also believe that Arab traders to pasta to Sicily, an Island now in Italy.
(iv) Foods items such as potatoes, maize and chillies were introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus discovered America.
Question 26.
Conservation in the background of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has become essential. [3]
Study the statement carefully and tell why we need to conserve our forests and wildlife.
Answer:
We need to conserve our forests and wildlife because:
(i) Conservation preserves the ecological diversity and our life support system – air, water and soil.
(ii) Conservation also preserves the genetic diversity of plants and animals for better growth of species and breeding.
(iii) It makes the planet Earth safe.
Question 27.
Under which type of federation does India come? Mention any two features of such federation. [3]
Answer:
Type of Federation of India:
India comes under ‘Holding together federations type’.
Features:
(i) It decides to divide its power between the Constituent States and the National Government.
(ii) In this federation, the Central Government tends to be more powerful than the States.
(iii) In this system, different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers
Question 28.
The organised sector is well organised by the Government. [3]
Justify the statement by giving reasons as to why do people prefer to work in the organised sector.
Answer:
Advantages of organised sector;
(i) People enjoy security of employment.
(ii) Work for fixed hours.
(iii) If they work more, they get overtime allowances.
(iv) Paid leaves, payment during holidays, medical benefits, safe working environment and pension after retirement.
Question 29.
Study the bar graph and answer the following question: [3]
Which country in the world has the least participation of women in National Parliaments?
Answer:
India has the least participation of women in the Parliament. It is only 11.8%, which is less than world average of 23.5%. Although the Constitution of India removed gender inequalities among caste and gender, discrimination continues to be a widespread barrier to women’s political participation.
Section – D (5 ×4=20 Marks)
Long Answer-Based Questions
Question 30.
Explain the attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’. [5]
OR
‘Through the Civil disobedience movement Mahatma Gandhi sought to unite the nation and he accomplished his goal1. In light of the given statement, discuss the role of common people in the civil disobedience movement.
Answer:
The attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards the Civil Disobedience Movement:
- During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists had made huge profits and became powerful.
- They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods and a Rupee¬Sterling Foreign Exchange ratio that would discourage import.
- To organise business interest they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress (in 1920) and the Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries-FICCI (in 1927).
- They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.
- Most businessmen came to see ‘Swaraj’ as a time when Colonial restrictions on business would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without constraints.
- After the failure of the Round Table Conference business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic.
- They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities and worried about prolonged disruption of business.
OR
- Common people from across the nation participated in the civil disobedience movement.
- Thousands of people manufactured salt in different parts of the country and broke the salt law.
- People boycotted foreign cloth and picketed liquor shops.
- Peasants refused to pay revenue.
- Forest people violated forest laws by giving into Reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
Question 31.
‘Two-thirds of India’s population is engaged in agricultural activities.’
In light of the above given statement, explain why agriculture is called the backbone of Indian economy. [5]
OR
Explain any five features of primitive subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the backbone of the Indian economy because:
- In India, about 52% of people were engaged in the agriculture sector in 2010-2011.
- It provides raw materials to industries.
- It helps earn foreign exchange for the country through the export of agricultural produce.
- The agricultural sector contributes almost one-third of our GDP.
- The sector also provides food for our teeming population.
OR
Features of primitive subsistence agriculture in India are:
- It is practised on small patches of land.
- Tools used in this kind of farming are traditional tools such as hoe, dao and digging stick.
- Tools used in this kind of farming are traditional tools such as hoe, dao and digging stick
- When soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift to another plot of land.
- Only a few crops are raised. The main crops grown are maize or com, cassava or manioc, millet, and beans.
Question 32.
Why has Federalism succeeded in India? Which were the policies adopted by India that ensured this success? Explain. [5]
OR
The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with Local Government Bodies.
In view of the above statement explain any five features of the Panchayati Raj system in India.
Answer:
Federalism has succeeded in India due to the nature of democratic policies in our country.
The policies adopted by India to ensure this success are:
- Linguistic States: After Independence, the boundaries of several old states were changed in order to create new states. The creation of Linguistic State is the first and a major test fdr democratic policies in our country.
- Language Policy: The second test for the Indian Federation is the language policy. The Indian Constitution did not give the status of National Language to any one of the languages.
- Centre-State Relations: Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which Federalism has been strengthened in practice.
- Decentralisation of Power: Power in India has been decentralised to the local government. The local government includes Panchayats in villages and municipalities in Urban areas.
OR
Rural local government is known as Panchyati Raj.
- Panchayati Raj Institution is rural based.
- Each village has Gram Panchayat.
- It has Panchs and a Sarpanch.
- He/She is directly elected by the adult population living in the village.
- Panchayat works under the gram Sabha.
- All the voters meet at least twice or thrice in a year.
- Few Gram Panchayats form Panchayat Samiti or Block or Mandol.
Question 33.
”Money cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well.” [5]
Explain the statement.
OR
Which type of deposits with the banks is called demand deposits? State some important features of demand deposits.
Answer:
Money cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well:
- Besides income, people also seek thinks like equal treatment and freedom.
- Security and respect of others.
- They resent discrimination.
- One may desire their friendship.
- Adequate provision of basic health.
- Good educational facilities.
OR
People save their money in banks by opening an account. The deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, so these deposits are called demand deposits.
- Banks accept the deposits and also pay an interest rate on the deposits. In this way, people’s money is safe with the banks and it also earns interest.
- The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly settle payments without the use of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment, along with currency, they constitute money in the modem economy.
- It is authorised by the government of the country.
Section – E (4×3=12 Marks)
Case-Based Questions
Question 34.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector.
The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two.
These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. The various production activities in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors produce a very large number of goods and services. Also, the three sectors have a large number of people working in them to produce these goods and services.
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is.
34.1 Production of a commodity, mostly through ways of manufacturing is an activity of which sector? [1]
Answer:
The secondary sector of the economy is an economic sector that describes the role of manufacturing. It encompasses industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction
34.2 State one example of tertiary sector. [1]
Answer:
Transport is an example of tertiary activity.
34.3 Why is secondary sector called industrial? [2]
Answer:
Secondary sector is also called industrial because the secondary sector is mostly associated with industries. For example, textile industry, steel industry, etc.
Question 35.
Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow. [4]
If Democracies are expected to produce good governments, then is it not fair to expect that they would also produce development? Evidence shows that in practice many democracies did not fulfil this expectation. If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth.
The inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us. But this alone cannot be the reason to reject democracy. As you have already studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc.
However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with Dictatorships and Democracies is negligible. Overall, we cannot say that democracy is a guarantee of economic development. But we can expect democracy not to lag behind dictatorship in this respect. When we find such significant difference in the rates of economic growth between countries under dictatorship and democracy, it is better to prefer democracy as it has several other positive outcomes.
35.1 Between democracies and dictatorships, who had a slightly higher rate of economic growth? [1]
Answer:
In Dictatorial regimes, the rules and regulations are rigid and compulsory. The citizens who disobey are severely punished. In Democratic regimes, as the leaders and bureaucrats think about their profits only, the government is not much keen to remove poverty and develop the country economically. Therefore, dictatorial regimes have slightly higher rate of economic growth.
35.2 What is meant by economic inequality? [1]
Answer:
Economic inequality is the unequal distribution of income and opportunities between different groups in society
35.3 Which development depends on country’s population, size, global situation and cooperation from other countries? [2]
Answer:
Economic development of a country depends on country’s population-size, global situation and cooperation from other countries. It can be measured by its per capita income, literacy rate, health status, infant mortality rate and life expectancy of persons living in that country.
Question 36.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [4]
India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten manuscripts- in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages. Manuscripts were copied on palm leaves Or on handmade paper. Pages were sometimes beautifully illustrated. They would be either pressed wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation.
Manuscripts continued to be produced well after the introduction of print, down to the late nineteenth century. Manuscripts, however, were highly expensive and fragile. They had to be handled carefully, and they could not be read easily as the script was written in different styles. So manuscripts were not widely used in everyday life.
Even though pre-colonial Bengal had developed an extensive network of village primary schools, students very often did not read texts. They only learnt to write. Teachers dictated portions of texts from memory and students wrote them down. Many thus became literate without ever actually reading any kinds of texts.
36.1 What is meant by manuscripts? [1]
Answer:
A manuscript is a handwritten work.
36.2 Mention any two languages in which the manuscripts were written. [1]
Answer:
Manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, as well as in various vernacular languages.
36.3 Write any two features of the manuscripts. [2]
Answer:
(i) Manuscripts were highly expensive and fragile.
(ii) Manuscripts were not widely used in everyday life
Section – F (2+3=5 Marks)
Map Skill-Based Question
Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. [2]
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Peasant Satyagrah in Gujarat
(B) Jallianwalla Bagh incident
Answer:
(A) Kheda (Gujarat) – Peasant Satyagraha
(B) Amritsar (Punjab) Incident
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable symbols. [3]
(i) A place where Arid soil is found
(ii) Tungabhadra Dam
(iii) Largest producer of tea in India
(iv) Mumbai High
Answer:
(i) A place where arid soil is found. Rajasthan
(ii) Tungabhadra Dam
(iii) Largest producer of tea in India-Assam
(iv) Mumbai High